Bill Text: IL SB1139 | 2019-2020 | 101st General Assembly | Chaptered

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Bill Title: Amends the Criminal Code of 2012. Extends from January 1, 2020 to January 1, 2025, the date of the inoperability of the eavesdropping exemption that provides with prior request to and written or verbal approval of the State's Attorney of the county in which the conversation is anticipated to occur, recording or listening with the aid of an eavesdropping device to a conversation in which a law enforcement officer, or any person acting at the direction of a law enforcement officer, is a party to the conversation and has consented to the conversation being intercepted or recorded in the course of an investigation of a qualified offense as defined in the exemption. Effective immediately.

Spectrum: Bipartisan Bill

Status: (Passed) 2019-07-12 - Public Act . . . . . . . . . 101-0080 [SB1139 Detail]

Download: Illinois-2019-SB1139-Chaptered.html

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Public Act 101-0080
SB1139 Enrolled LRB101 04922 SLF 49931 b
AN ACT concerning criminal law.
Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
represented in the General Assembly:
Section 5. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is
amended by changing Sections 4 and 8 as follows:
(430 ILCS 65/4) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-4)
Sec. 4. Application for Firearm Owner's Identification
Cards.
(a) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification
Card must:
(1) Make application on blank forms prepared and
furnished at convenient locations throughout the State by
the Department of State Police, or by electronic means, if
and when made available by the Department of State Police;
and
(2) Submit evidence to the Department of State Police
that:
(i) This subparagraph (i) applies through the
180th day following the effective date of this
amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly. He or she
is 21 years of age or over, or if he or she is under 21
years of age that he or she has the written consent of
his or her parent or legal guardian to possess and

acquire firearms and firearm ammunition and that he or
she has never been convicted of a misdemeanor other
than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent,
provided, however, that such parent or legal guardian
is not an individual prohibited from having a Firearm
Owner's Identification Card and files an affidavit
with the Department as prescribed by the Department
stating that he or she is not an individual prohibited
from having a Card;
(i-5) This subparagraph (i-5) applies on and after
the 181st day following the effective date of this
amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly. He or she
is 21 years of age or over, or if he or she is under 21
years of age that he or she has never been convicted of
a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged
delinquent and is an active duty member of the United
States Armed Forces or has the written consent of his
or her parent or legal guardian to possess and acquire
firearms and firearm ammunition, provided, however,
that such parent or legal guardian is not an individual
prohibited from having a Firearm Owner's
Identification Card and files an affidavit with the
Department as prescribed by the Department stating
that he or she is not an individual prohibited from
having a Card or the active duty member of the United
States Armed Forces under 21 years of age annually

submits proof to the Department of State Police, in a
manner prescribed by the Department;
(ii) He or she has not been convicted of a felony
under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction;
(iii) He or she is not addicted to narcotics;
(iv) He or she has not been a patient in a mental
health facility within the past 5 years or, if he or
she has been a patient in a mental health facility more
than 5 years ago submit the certification required
under subsection (u) of Section 8 of this Act;
(v) He or she is not a person with an intellectual
disability;
(vi) He or she is not an alien who is unlawfully
present in the United States under the laws of the
United States;
(vii) He or she is not subject to an existing order
of protection prohibiting him or her from possessing a
firearm;
(viii) He or she has not been convicted within the
past 5 years of battery, assault, aggravated assault,
violation of an order of protection, or a substantially
similar offense in another jurisdiction, in which a
firearm was used or possessed;
(ix) He or she has not been convicted of domestic
battery, aggravated domestic battery, or a
substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction

committed before, on or after January 1, 2012 (the
effective date of Public Act 97-158). If the applicant
knowingly and intelligently waives the right to have an
offense described in this clause (ix) tried by a jury,
and by guilty plea or otherwise, results in a
conviction for an offense in which a domestic
relationship is not a required element of the offense
but in which a determination of the applicability of 18
U.S.C. 922(g)(9) is made under Section 112A-11.1 of the
Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, an entry by the
court of a judgment of conviction for that offense
shall be grounds for denying the issuance of a Firearm
Owner's Identification Card under this Section;
(x) (Blank);
(xi) He or she is not an alien who has been
admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant
visa (as that term is defined in Section 101(a)(26) of
the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C.
1101(a)(26))), or that he or she is an alien who has
been lawfully admitted to the United States under a
non-immigrant visa if that alien is:
(1) admitted to the United States for lawful
hunting or sporting purposes;
(2) an official representative of a foreign
government who is:
(A) accredited to the United States

Government or the Government's mission to an
international organization having its
headquarters in the United States; or
(B) en route to or from another country to
which that alien is accredited;
(3) an official of a foreign government or
distinguished foreign visitor who has been so
designated by the Department of State;
(4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a
friendly foreign government entering the United
States on official business; or
(5) one who has received a waiver from the
Attorney General of the United States pursuant to
18 U.S.C. 922(y)(3);
(xii) He or she is not a minor subject to a
petition filed under Section 5-520 of the Juvenile
Court Act of 1987 alleging that the minor is a
delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that
if committed by an adult would be a felony;
(xiii) He or she is not an adult who had been
adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile
Court Act of 1987 for the commission of an offense that
if committed by an adult would be a felony;
(xiv) He or she is a resident of the State of
Illinois;
(xv) He or she has not been adjudicated as a person

with a mental disability;
(xvi) He or she has not been involuntarily admitted
into a mental health facility; and
(xvii) He or she is not a person with a
developmental disability; and
(3) Upon request by the Department of State Police,
sign a release on a form prescribed by the Department of
State Police waiving any right to confidentiality and
requesting the disclosure to the Department of State Police
of limited mental health institution admission information
from another state, the District of Columbia, any other
territory of the United States, or a foreign nation
concerning the applicant for the sole purpose of
determining whether the applicant is or was a patient in a
mental health institution and disqualified because of that
status from receiving a Firearm Owner's Identification
Card. No mental health care or treatment records may be
requested. The information received shall be destroyed
within one year of receipt.
(a-5) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification
Card who is over the age of 18 shall furnish to the Department
of State Police either his or her Illinois driver's license
number or Illinois Identification Card number, except as
provided in subsection (a-10).
(a-10) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification
Card, who is employed as a law enforcement officer, an armed

security officer in Illinois, or by the United States Military
permanently assigned in Illinois and who is not an Illinois
resident, shall furnish to the Department of State Police his
or her driver's license number or state identification card
number from his or her state of residence. The Department of
State Police may adopt rules to enforce the provisions of this
subsection (a-10).
(a-15) If an applicant applying for a Firearm Owner's
Identification Card moves from the residence address named in
the application, he or she shall immediately notify in a form
and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police of that
change of address.
(a-20) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification
Card shall furnish to the Department of State Police his or her
photograph. An applicant who is 21 years of age or older
seeking a religious exemption to the photograph requirement
must furnish with the application an approved copy of United
States Department of the Treasury Internal Revenue Service Form
4029. In lieu of a photograph, an applicant regardless of age
seeking a religious exemption to the photograph requirement
shall submit fingerprints on a form and manner prescribed by
the Department with his or her application.
(b) Each application form shall include the following
statement printed in bold type: "Warning: Entering false
information on an application for a Firearm Owner's
Identification Card is punishable as a Class 2 felony in

accordance with subsection (d-5) of Section 14 of the Firearm
Owners Identification Card Act.".
(c) Upon such written consent, pursuant to Section 4,
paragraph (a)(2)(i), the parent or legal guardian giving the
consent shall be liable for any damages resulting from the
applicant's use of firearms or firearm ammunition.
(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)
(430 ILCS 65/8) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-8)
Sec. 8. Grounds for denial and revocation. The Department
of State Police has authority to deny an application for or to
revoke and seize a Firearm Owner's Identification Card
previously issued under this Act only if the Department finds
that the applicant or the person to whom such card was issued
is or was at the time of issuance:
(a) A person under 21 years of age who has been
convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or
adjudged delinquent;
(b) This subsection (b) applies through the 180th day
following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the
101st General Assembly. A person under 21 years of age who
does not have the written consent of his parent or guardian
to acquire and possess firearms and firearm ammunition, or
whose parent or guardian has revoked such written consent,
or where such parent or guardian does not qualify to have a
Firearm Owner's Identification Card;

(b-5) This subsection (b-5) applies on and after the
181st day following the effective date of this amendatory
Act of the 101st General Assembly. A person under 21 years
of age who is not an active duty member of the United
States Armed Forces and does not have the written consent
of his or her parent or guardian to acquire and possess
firearms and firearm ammunition, or whose parent or
guardian has revoked such written consent, or where such
parent or guardian does not qualify to have a Firearm
Owner's Identification Card;
(c) A person convicted of a felony under the laws of
this or any other jurisdiction;
(d) A person addicted to narcotics;
(e) A person who has been a patient of a mental health
facility within the past 5 years or a person who has been a
patient in a mental health facility more than 5 years ago
who has not received the certification required under
subsection (u) of this Section. An active law enforcement
officer employed by a unit of government who is denied,
revoked, or has his or her Firearm Owner's Identification
Card seized under this subsection (e) may obtain relief as
described in subsection (c-5) of Section 10 of this Act if
the officer did not act in a manner threatening to the
officer, another person, or the public as determined by the
treating clinical psychologist or physician, and the
officer seeks mental health treatment;

(f) A person whose mental condition is of such a nature
that it poses a clear and present danger to the applicant,
any other person or persons or the community;
(g) A person who has an intellectual disability;
(h) A person who intentionally makes a false statement
in the Firearm Owner's Identification Card application;
(i) An alien who is unlawfully present in the United
States under the laws of the United States;
(i-5) An alien who has been admitted to the United
States under a non-immigrant visa (as that term is defined
in Section 101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality
Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(26))), except that this subsection
(i-5) does not apply to any alien who has been lawfully
admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa if
that alien is:
(1) admitted to the United States for lawful
hunting or sporting purposes;
(2) an official representative of a foreign
government who is:
(A) accredited to the United States Government
or the Government's mission to an international
organization having its headquarters in the United
States; or
(B) en route to or from another country to
which that alien is accredited;
(3) an official of a foreign government or

distinguished foreign visitor who has been so
designated by the Department of State;
(4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly
foreign government entering the United States on
official business; or
(5) one who has received a waiver from the Attorney
General of the United States pursuant to 18 U.S.C.
922(y)(3);
(j) (Blank);
(k) A person who has been convicted within the past 5
years of battery, assault, aggravated assault, violation
of an order of protection, or a substantially similar
offense in another jurisdiction, in which a firearm was
used or possessed;
(l) A person who has been convicted of domestic
battery, aggravated domestic battery, or a substantially
similar offense in another jurisdiction committed before,
on or after January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public
Act 97-158). If the applicant or person who has been
previously issued a Firearm Owner's Identification Card
under this Act knowingly and intelligently waives the right
to have an offense described in this paragraph (l) tried by
a jury, and by guilty plea or otherwise, results in a
conviction for an offense in which a domestic relationship
is not a required element of the offense but in which a
determination of the applicability of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9)

is made under Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure of 1963, an entry by the court of a judgment of
conviction for that offense shall be grounds for denying an
application for and for revoking and seizing a Firearm
Owner's Identification Card previously issued to the
person under this Act;
(m) (Blank);
(n) A person who is prohibited from acquiring or
possessing firearms or firearm ammunition by any Illinois
State statute or by federal law;
(o) A minor subject to a petition filed under Section
5-520 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging that the
minor is a delinquent minor for the commission of an
offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;
(p) An adult who had been adjudicated a delinquent
minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for the
commission of an offense that if committed by an adult
would be a felony;
(q) A person who is not a resident of the State of
Illinois, except as provided in subsection (a-10) of
Section 4;
(r) A person who has been adjudicated as a person with
a mental disability;
(s) A person who has been found to have a developmental
disability;
(t) A person involuntarily admitted into a mental

health facility; or
(u) A person who has had his or her Firearm Owner's
Identification Card revoked or denied under subsection (e)
of this Section or item (iv) of paragraph (2) of subsection
(a) of Section 4 of this Act because he or she was a
patient in a mental health facility as provided in
subsection (e) of this Section, shall not be permitted to
obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, after the
5-year period has lapsed, unless he or she has received a
mental health evaluation by a physician, clinical
psychologist, or qualified examiner as those terms are
defined in the Mental Health and Developmental
Disabilities Code, and has received a certification that he
or she is not a clear and present danger to himself,
herself, or others. The physician, clinical psychologist,
or qualified examiner making the certification and his or
her employer shall not be held criminally, civilly, or
professionally liable for making or not making the
certification required under this subsection, except for
willful or wanton misconduct. This subsection does not
apply to a person whose firearm possession rights have been
restored through administrative or judicial action under
Section 10 or 11 of this Act.
Upon revocation of a person's Firearm Owner's
Identification Card, the Department of State Police shall
provide notice to the person and the person shall comply with

Section 9.5 of this Act.
(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-508, eff. 8-19-13; 98-756,
eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)
Section 10. The Firearm Concealed Carry Act is amended by
changing Section 50 as follows:
(430 ILCS 66/50)
Sec. 50. License renewal.
(a) This subsection (a) applies through the 180th day
following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the
101st General Assembly. Applications for renewal of a license
shall be made to the Department. A license shall be renewed for
a period of 5 years upon receipt of a completed renewal
application, completion of 3 hours of training required under
Section 75 of this Act, payment of the applicable renewal fee,
and completion of an investigation under Section 35 of this
Act. The renewal application shall contain the information
required in Section 30 of this Act, except that the applicant
need not resubmit a full set of fingerprints.
(b) This subsection (b) applies on and after the 181st day
following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the
101st General Assembly. Applications for renewal of a license
shall be made to the Department. A license shall be renewed for
a period of 5 years from the date of expiration on the
applicant's current license upon the receipt of a completed

renewal application, completion of 3 hours of training required
under Section 75 of this Act, payment of the applicable renewal
fee, and completion of an investigation under Section 35 of
this Act. The renewal application shall contain the information
required in Section 30 of this Act, except that the applicant
need not resubmit a full set of fingerprints.
(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)
Section 15. The Firearm Dealer License Certification Act is
amended by changing Sections 5-5 and 5-25 as follows:
(430 ILCS 68/5-5)
Sec. 5-5. Definitions. In this Act:
"Certified licensee" means a licensee that has previously
certified its license with the Department under this Act.
"Department" means the Department of State Police.
"Director" means the Director of State Police.
"Entity" means any person, firm, corporation, group of
individuals, or other legal entity.
"Inventory" means firearms in the possession of an
individual or entity for the purpose of sale or transfer.
"License" means a Federal Firearms License authorizing a
person or entity to engage in the business of dealing firearms.
"Licensee" means a person, firm, corporation, or other
entity who has been given, and is currently in possession of, a
valid Federal Firearms License.

"Retail location" means a store open to the public from
which a certified licensee engages in the business of selling,
transferring, or facilitating a sale or transfer of a firearm.
For purposes of this Act, the World Shooting and Recreational
Complex, a gun show, or similar event at which a certified
licensee engages in business from time to time is not a retail
location.
(Source: P.A. 100-1178, eff. 1-18-19.)
(430 ILCS 68/5-25)
Sec. 5-25. Exemptions.
The provisions of this Act related to the certification of
a license do not apply to a person or entity that engages in
the following activities:
(1) temporary transfers of firearms solely for use at
the location or on the premises where the transfer takes
place, such as transfers at a shooting range for use at
that location;
(2) temporary transfers of firearms solely for use
while in the presence of the transferor or transfers for
the purposes of firearm safety training by a firearms
safety training instructor;
(3) transfers of firearms among immediate family or
household members, as "immediate family or household
member" is defined in Section 3-2.7-10 of the Unified Code
of Corrections, provided that both the transferor and

transferee have a currently valid Firearm Owner's
Identification Card; however, this paragraph (3) does not
limit the familial gift exemption under paragraph (2) of
subsection (a-15) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners
Identification Card Act;
(4) transfers by persons or entities acting under
operation of law or a court order;
(5) transfers by persons or entities liquidating all or
part of a collection. For purposes of this paragraph (5),
"collection" means 2 or more firearms which are of special
interest to collectors by reason of some quality other than
is associated with firearms intended for sporting use or as
offensive or defensive weapons;
(6) transfers of firearms that have been rendered
permanently inoperable to a nonprofit historical society,
museum, or institutional collection;
(7) transfers by a law enforcement or corrections
agency or a law enforcement or corrections officer acting
within the course and scope of his or her official duties;
(8) transfers to a State or local law enforcement
agency by a person who has his or her Firearm Owner's
Identification Card revoked;
(9) transfers of curios and relics, as defined under
federal law, between collectors licensed under subsection
(b) of Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968;
(10) transfers by a person or entity licensed as an

auctioneer under the Auction License Act; or
(10.5) transfers of firearms to a resident registered
competitor or attendee or non-resident registered
competitor or attendee by a licensed federal firearms
dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of
1968 at a competitive shooting event held at the World
Shooting and Recreational Complex that is sanctioned by a
national governing body; or
(11) transfers between a pawnshop and a customer which
amount to a bailment. For purposes of this paragraph (11),
"bailment" means the act of placing property in the custody
and control of another, by agreement in which the holder is
responsible for the safekeeping and return of the property.
(Source: P.A. 100-1178, eff. 1-18-19.)
Section 20. The Wildlife Code is amended by adding Section
3.4b as follows:
(520 ILCS 5/3.4b new)
Sec. 3.4b. Concealed firearm exemption. A current or
retired law enforcement officer authorized by law to possess a
concealed firearm shall be exempt from the provisions of this
Code prohibiting possession of those firearms. However,
nothing in this Section authorizes the use of those firearms
except as authorized by law.

Section 25. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by
changing Sections 14-3 and 24-2 as follows:
(720 ILCS 5/14-3)
Sec. 14-3. Exemptions. The following activities shall be
exempt from the provisions of this Article:
(a) Listening to radio, wireless electronic
communications, and television communications of any sort
where the same are publicly made;
(b) Hearing conversation when heard by employees of any
common carrier by wire incidental to the normal course of their
employment in the operation, maintenance or repair of the
equipment of such common carrier by wire so long as no
information obtained thereby is used or divulged by the hearer;
(c) Any broadcast by radio, television or otherwise whether
it be a broadcast or recorded for the purpose of later
broadcasts of any function where the public is in attendance
and the conversations are overheard incidental to the main
purpose for which such broadcasts are then being made;
(d) Recording or listening with the aid of any device to
any emergency communication made in the normal course of
operations by any federal, state or local law enforcement
agency or institutions dealing in emergency services,
including, but not limited to, hospitals, clinics, ambulance
services, fire fighting agencies, any public utility,
emergency repair facility, civilian defense establishment or

military installation;
(e) Recording the proceedings of any meeting required to be
open by the Open Meetings Act, as amended;
(f) Recording or listening with the aid of any device to
incoming telephone calls of phone lines publicly listed or
advertised as consumer "hotlines" by manufacturers or
retailers of food and drug products. Such recordings must be
destroyed, erased or turned over to local law enforcement
authorities within 24 hours from the time of such recording and
shall not be otherwise disseminated. Failure on the part of the
individual or business operating any such recording or
listening device to comply with the requirements of this
subsection shall eliminate any civil or criminal immunity
conferred upon that individual or business by the operation of
this Section;
(g) With prior notification to the State's Attorney of the
county in which it is to occur, recording or listening with the
aid of any device to any conversation where a law enforcement
officer, or any person acting at the direction of law
enforcement, is a party to the conversation and has consented
to it being intercepted or recorded under circumstances where
the use of the device is necessary for the protection of the
law enforcement officer or any person acting at the direction
of law enforcement, in the course of an investigation of a
forcible felony, a felony offense of involuntary servitude,
involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in

persons under Section 10-9 of this Code, an offense involving
prostitution, solicitation of a sexual act, or pandering, a
felony violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, a
felony violation of the Cannabis Control Act, a felony
violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community
Protection Act, any "streetgang related" or "gang-related"
felony as those terms are defined in the Illinois Streetgang
Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act, or any felony offense
involving any weapon listed in paragraphs (1) through (11) of
subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of this Code. Any recording or
evidence derived as the result of this exemption shall be
inadmissible in any proceeding, criminal, civil or
administrative, except (i) where a party to the conversation
suffers great bodily injury or is killed during such
conversation, or (ii) when used as direct impeachment of a
witness concerning matters contained in the interception or
recording. The Director of the Department of State Police shall
issue regulations as are necessary concerning the use of
devices, retention of tape recordings, and reports regarding
their use;
(g-5) (Blank);
(g-6) With approval of the State's Attorney of the county
in which it is to occur, recording or listening with the aid of
any device to any conversation where a law enforcement officer,
or any person acting at the direction of law enforcement, is a
party to the conversation and has consented to it being

intercepted or recorded in the course of an investigation of
child pornography, aggravated child pornography, indecent
solicitation of a child, luring of a minor, sexual exploitation
of a child, aggravated criminal sexual abuse in which the
victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the
offense under 18 years of age, or criminal sexual abuse by
force or threat of force in which the victim of the offense was
at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of
age. In all such cases, an application for an order approving
the previous or continuing use of an eavesdropping device must
be made within 48 hours of the commencement of such use. In the
absence of such an order, or upon its denial, any continuing
use shall immediately terminate. The Director of State Police
shall issue rules as are necessary concerning the use of
devices, retention of recordings, and reports regarding their
use. Any recording or evidence obtained or derived in the
course of an investigation of child pornography, aggravated
child pornography, indecent solicitation of a child, luring of
a minor, sexual exploitation of a child, aggravated criminal
sexual abuse in which the victim of the offense was at the time
of the commission of the offense under 18 years of age, or
criminal sexual abuse by force or threat of force in which the
victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the
offense under 18 years of age shall, upon motion of the State's
Attorney or Attorney General prosecuting any case involving
child pornography, aggravated child pornography, indecent

solicitation of a child, luring of a minor, sexual exploitation
of a child, aggravated criminal sexual abuse in which the
victim of the offense was at the time of the commission of the
offense under 18 years of age, or criminal sexual abuse by
force or threat of force in which the victim of the offense was
at the time of the commission of the offense under 18 years of
age be reviewed in camera with notice to all parties present by
the court presiding over the criminal case, and, if ruled by
the court to be relevant and otherwise admissible, it shall be
admissible at the trial of the criminal case. Absent such a
ruling, any such recording or evidence shall not be admissible
at the trial of the criminal case;
(h) Recordings made simultaneously with the use of an
in-car video camera recording of an oral conversation between a
uniformed peace officer, who has identified his or her office,
and a person in the presence of the peace officer whenever (i)
an officer assigned a patrol vehicle is conducting an
enforcement stop; or (ii) patrol vehicle emergency lights are
activated or would otherwise be activated if not for the need
to conceal the presence of law enforcement.
For the purposes of this subsection (h), "enforcement stop"
means an action by a law enforcement officer in relation to
enforcement and investigation duties, including but not
limited to, traffic stops, pedestrian stops, abandoned vehicle
contacts, motorist assists, commercial motor vehicle stops,
roadside safety checks, requests for identification, or

responses to requests for emergency assistance;
(h-5) Recordings of utterances made by a person while in
the presence of a uniformed peace officer and while an occupant
of a police vehicle including, but not limited to, (i)
recordings made simultaneously with the use of an in-car video
camera and (ii) recordings made in the presence of the peace
officer utilizing video or audio systems, or both, authorized
by the law enforcement agency;
(h-10) Recordings made simultaneously with a video camera
recording during the use of a taser or similar weapon or device
by a peace officer if the weapon or device is equipped with
such camera;
(h-15) Recordings made under subsection (h), (h-5), or
(h-10) shall be retained by the law enforcement agency that
employs the peace officer who made the recordings for a storage
period of 90 days, unless the recordings are made as a part of
an arrest or the recordings are deemed evidence in any
criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding and then the
recordings must only be destroyed upon a final disposition and
an order from the court. Under no circumstances shall any
recording be altered or erased prior to the expiration of the
designated storage period. Upon completion of the storage
period, the recording medium may be erased and reissued for
operational use;
(i) Recording of a conversation made by or at the request
of a person, not a law enforcement officer or agent of a law

enforcement officer, who is a party to the conversation, under
reasonable suspicion that another party to the conversation is
committing, is about to commit, or has committed a criminal
offense against the person or a member of his or her immediate
household, and there is reason to believe that evidence of the
criminal offense may be obtained by the recording;
(j) The use of a telephone monitoring device by either (1)
a corporation or other business entity engaged in marketing or
opinion research or (2) a corporation or other business entity
engaged in telephone solicitation, as defined in this
subsection, to record or listen to oral telephone solicitation
conversations or marketing or opinion research conversations
by an employee of the corporation or other business entity
when:
(i) the monitoring is used for the purpose of service
quality control of marketing or opinion research or
telephone solicitation, the education or training of
employees or contractors engaged in marketing or opinion
research or telephone solicitation, or internal research
related to marketing or opinion research or telephone
solicitation; and
(ii) the monitoring is used with the consent of at
least one person who is an active party to the marketing or
opinion research conversation or telephone solicitation
conversation being monitored.
No communication or conversation or any part, portion, or

aspect of the communication or conversation made, acquired, or
obtained, directly or indirectly, under this exemption (j), may
be, directly or indirectly, furnished to any law enforcement
officer, agency, or official for any purpose or used in any
inquiry or investigation, or used, directly or indirectly, in
any administrative, judicial, or other proceeding, or divulged
to any third party.
When recording or listening authorized by this subsection
(j) on telephone lines used for marketing or opinion research
or telephone solicitation purposes results in recording or
listening to a conversation that does not relate to marketing
or opinion research or telephone solicitation; the person
recording or listening shall, immediately upon determining
that the conversation does not relate to marketing or opinion
research or telephone solicitation, terminate the recording or
listening and destroy any such recording as soon as is
practicable.
Business entities that use a telephone monitoring or
telephone recording system pursuant to this exemption (j) shall
provide current and prospective employees with notice that the
monitoring or recordings may occur during the course of their
employment. The notice shall include prominent signage
notification within the workplace.
Business entities that use a telephone monitoring or
telephone recording system pursuant to this exemption (j) shall
provide their employees or agents with access to personal-only

telephone lines which may be pay telephones, that are not
subject to telephone monitoring or telephone recording.
For the purposes of this subsection (j), "telephone
solicitation" means a communication through the use of a
telephone by live operators:
(i) soliciting the sale of goods or services;
(ii) receiving orders for the sale of goods or
services;
(iii) assisting in the use of goods or services; or
(iv) engaging in the solicitation, administration, or
collection of bank or retail credit accounts.
For the purposes of this subsection (j), "marketing or
opinion research" means a marketing or opinion research
interview conducted by a live telephone interviewer engaged by
a corporation or other business entity whose principal business
is the design, conduct, and analysis of polls and surveys
measuring the opinions, attitudes, and responses of
respondents toward products and services, or social or
political issues, or both;
(k) Electronic recordings, including but not limited to, a
motion picture, videotape, digital, or other visual or audio
recording, made of a custodial interrogation of an individual
at a police station or other place of detention by a law
enforcement officer under Section 5-401.5 of the Juvenile Court
Act of 1987 or Section 103-2.1 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure of 1963;

(l) Recording the interview or statement of any person when
the person knows that the interview is being conducted by a law
enforcement officer or prosecutor and the interview takes place
at a police station that is currently participating in the
Custodial Interview Pilot Program established under the
Illinois Criminal Justice Information Act;
(m) An electronic recording, including but not limited to,
a motion picture, videotape, digital, or other visual or audio
recording, made of the interior of a school bus while the
school bus is being used in the transportation of students to
and from school and school-sponsored activities, when the
school board has adopted a policy authorizing such recording,
notice of such recording policy is included in student
handbooks and other documents including the policies of the
school, notice of the policy regarding recording is provided to
parents of students, and notice of such recording is clearly
posted on the door of and inside the school bus.
Recordings made pursuant to this subsection (m) shall be
confidential records and may only be used by school officials
(or their designees) and law enforcement personnel for
investigations, school disciplinary actions and hearings,
proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, and criminal
prosecutions, related to incidents occurring in or around the
school bus;
(n) Recording or listening to an audio transmission from a
microphone placed by a person under the authority of a law

enforcement agency inside a bait car surveillance vehicle while
simultaneously capturing a photographic or video image;
(o) The use of an eavesdropping camera or audio device
during an ongoing hostage or barricade situation by a law
enforcement officer or individual acting on behalf of a law
enforcement officer when the use of such device is necessary to
protect the safety of the general public, hostages, or law
enforcement officers or anyone acting on their behalf;
(p) Recording or listening with the aid of any device to
incoming telephone calls of phone lines publicly listed or
advertised as the "CPS Violence Prevention Hotline", but only
where the notice of recording is given at the beginning of each
call as required by Section 34-21.8 of the School Code. The
recordings may be retained only by the Chicago Police
Department or other law enforcement authorities, and shall not
be otherwise retained or disseminated;
(q)(1) With prior request to and written or verbal approval
of the State's Attorney of the county in which the conversation
is anticipated to occur, recording or listening with the aid of
an eavesdropping device to a conversation in which a law
enforcement officer, or any person acting at the direction of a
law enforcement officer, is a party to the conversation and has
consented to the conversation being intercepted or recorded in
the course of an investigation of a qualified offense. The
State's Attorney may grant this approval only after determining
that reasonable cause exists to believe that inculpatory

conversations concerning a qualified offense will occur with a
specified individual or individuals within a designated period
of time.
(2) Request for approval. To invoke the exception contained
in this subsection (q), a law enforcement officer shall make a
request for approval to the appropriate State's Attorney. The
request may be written or verbal; however, a written
memorialization of the request must be made by the State's
Attorney. This request for approval shall include whatever
information is deemed necessary by the State's Attorney but
shall include, at a minimum, the following information about
each specified individual whom the law enforcement officer
believes will commit a qualified offense:
(A) his or her full or partial name, nickname or alias;
(B) a physical description; or
(C) failing either (A) or (B) of this paragraph (2),
any other supporting information known to the law
enforcement officer at the time of the request that gives
rise to reasonable cause to believe that the specified
individual will participate in an inculpatory conversation
concerning a qualified offense.
(3) Limitations on approval. Each written approval by the
State's Attorney under this subsection (q) shall be limited to:
(A) a recording or interception conducted by a
specified law enforcement officer or person acting at the
direction of a law enforcement officer;

(B) recording or intercepting conversations with the
individuals specified in the request for approval,
provided that the verbal approval shall be deemed to
include the recording or intercepting of conversations
with other individuals, unknown to the law enforcement
officer at the time of the request for approval, who are
acting in conjunction with or as co-conspirators with the
individuals specified in the request for approval in the
commission of a qualified offense;
(C) a reasonable period of time but in no event longer
than 24 consecutive hours;
(D) the written request for approval, if applicable, or
the written memorialization must be filed, along with the
written approval, with the circuit clerk of the
jurisdiction on the next business day following the
expiration of the authorized period of time, and shall be
subject to review by the Chief Judge or his or her designee
as deemed appropriate by the court.
(3.5) The written memorialization of the request for
approval and the written approval by the State's Attorney may
be in any format, including via facsimile, email, or otherwise,
so long as it is capable of being filed with the circuit clerk.
(3.10) Beginning March 1, 2015, each State's Attorney shall
annually submit a report to the General Assembly disclosing:
(A) the number of requests for each qualified offense
for approval under this subsection; and

(B) the number of approvals for each qualified offense
given by the State's Attorney.
(4) Admissibility of evidence. No part of the contents of
any wire, electronic, or oral communication that has been
recorded or intercepted as a result of this exception may be
received in evidence in any trial, hearing, or other proceeding
in or before any court, grand jury, department, officer,
agency, regulatory body, legislative committee, or other
authority of this State, or a political subdivision of the
State, other than in a prosecution of:
(A) the qualified offense for which approval was given
to record or intercept a conversation under this subsection
(q);
(B) a forcible felony committed directly in the course
of the investigation of the qualified offense for which
approval was given to record or intercept a conversation
under this subsection (q); or
(C) any other forcible felony committed while the
recording or interception was approved in accordance with
this subsection (q), but for this specific category of
prosecutions, only if the law enforcement officer or person
acting at the direction of a law enforcement officer who
has consented to the conversation being intercepted or
recorded suffers great bodily injury or is killed during
the commission of the charged forcible felony.
(5) Compliance with the provisions of this subsection is a

prerequisite to the admissibility in evidence of any part of
the contents of any wire, electronic or oral communication that
has been intercepted as a result of this exception, but nothing
in this subsection shall be deemed to prevent a court from
otherwise excluding the evidence on any other ground recognized
by State or federal law, nor shall anything in this subsection
be deemed to prevent a court from independently reviewing the
admissibility of the evidence for compliance with the Fourth
Amendment to the U.S. Constitution or with Article I, Section 6
of the Illinois Constitution.
(6) Use of recordings or intercepts unrelated to qualified
offenses. Whenever any private conversation or private
electronic communication has been recorded or intercepted as a
result of this exception that is not related to an offense for
which the recording or intercept is admissible under paragraph
(4) of this subsection (q), no part of the contents of the
communication and evidence derived from the communication may
be received in evidence in any trial, hearing, or other
proceeding in or before any court, grand jury, department,
officer, agency, regulatory body, legislative committee, or
other authority of this State, or a political subdivision of
the State, nor may it be publicly disclosed in any way.
(6.5) The Department of State Police shall adopt rules as
are necessary concerning the use of devices, retention of
recordings, and reports regarding their use under this
subsection (q).

(7) Definitions. For the purposes of this subsection (q)
only:
"Forcible felony" includes and is limited to those
offenses contained in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of
1961 as of the effective date of this amendatory Act of the
97th General Assembly, and only as those offenses have been
defined by law or judicial interpretation as of that date.
"Qualified offense" means and is limited to:
(A) a felony violation of the Cannabis Control Act,
the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the
Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act,
except for violations of:
(i) Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act;
(ii) Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled
Substances Act; and
(iii) Section 60 of the Methamphetamine
Control and Community Protection Act; and
(B) first degree murder, solicitation of murder
for hire, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child,
criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual
assault, aggravated arson, kidnapping, aggravated
kidnapping, child abduction, trafficking in persons,
involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of
a minor, or gunrunning.
"State's Attorney" includes and is limited to the
State's Attorney or an assistant State's Attorney

designated by the State's Attorney to provide verbal
approval to record or intercept conversations under this
subsection (q).
(8) Sunset. This subsection (q) is inoperative on and after
January 1, 2023 2020. No conversations intercepted pursuant to
this subsection (q), while operative, shall be inadmissible in
a court of law by virtue of the inoperability of this
subsection (q) on January 1, 2023 2020.
(9) Recordings, records, and custody. Any private
conversation or private electronic communication intercepted
by a law enforcement officer or a person acting at the
direction of law enforcement shall, if practicable, be recorded
in such a way as will protect the recording from editing or
other alteration. Any and all original recordings made under
this subsection (q) shall be inventoried without unnecessary
delay pursuant to the law enforcement agency's policies for
inventorying evidence. The original recordings shall not be
destroyed except upon an order of a court of competent
jurisdiction; and
(r) Electronic recordings, including but not limited to,
motion picture, videotape, digital, or other visual or audio
recording, made of a lineup under Section 107A-2 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure of 1963.
(Source: P.A. 100-572, eff. 12-29-17.)
(720 ILCS 5/24-2)

Sec. 24-2. Exemptions.
(a) Subsections 24-1(a)(3), 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(10), and
24-1(a)(13) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of
the following:
(1) Peace officers, and any person summoned by a peace
officer to assist in making arrests or preserving the
peace, while actually engaged in assisting such officer.
(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons,
penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the
detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense,
while in the performance of their official duty, or while
commuting between their homes and places of employment.
(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of
the United States or the Illinois National Guard or the
Reserve Officers Training Corps, while in the performance
of their official duty.
(4) Special agents employed by a railroad or a public
utility to perform police functions, and guards of armored
car companies, while actually engaged in the performance of
the duties of their employment or commuting between their
homes and places of employment; and watchmen while actually
engaged in the performance of the duties of their
employment.
(5) Persons licensed as private security contractors,
private detectives, or private alarm contractors, or
employed by a private security contractor, private

detective, or private alarm contractor agency licensed by
the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation,
if their duties include the carrying of a weapon under the
provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm,
Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of
2004, while actually engaged in the performance of the
duties of their employment or commuting between their homes
and places of employment. A person shall be considered
eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the
required 20 hours of training for a private security
contractor, private detective, or private alarm
contractor, or employee of a licensed private security
contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor
agency and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has
been issued a firearm control card by the Department of
Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for the
renewal of firearm control cards issued under the
provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those
cards issued under the provisions of the Private Detective,
Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and
Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be
carried by the private security contractor, private
detective, or private alarm contractor, or employee of the
licensed private security contractor, private detective,
or private alarm contractor agency at all times when he or
she is in possession of a concealable weapon permitted by

his or her firearm control card.
(6) Any person regularly employed in a commercial or
industrial operation as a security guard for the protection
of persons employed and private property related to such
commercial or industrial operation, while actually engaged
in the performance of his or her duty or traveling between
sites or properties belonging to the employer, and who, as
a security guard, is a member of a security force
registered with the Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation; provided that such security guard
has successfully completed a course of study, approved by
and supervised by the Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 40
hours of training that includes the theory of law
enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of
weapons. A person shall be considered eligible for this
exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours
of training for a security officer and 20 hours of required
firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control
card by the Department of Financial and Professional
Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm control
cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be
the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of
the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security,
Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm
control card shall be carried by the security guard at all

times when he or she is in possession of a concealable
weapon permitted by his or her firearm control card.
(7) Agents and investigators of the Illinois
Legislative Investigating Commission authorized by the
Commission to carry the weapons specified in subsections
24-1(a)(3) and 24-1(a)(4), while on duty in the course of
any investigation for the Commission.
(8) Persons employed by a financial institution as a
security guard for the protection of other employees and
property related to such financial institution, while
actually engaged in the performance of their duties,
commuting between their homes and places of employment, or
traveling between sites or properties owned or operated by
such financial institution, and who, as a security guard,
is a member of a security force registered with the
Department; provided that any person so employed has
successfully completed a course of study, approved by and
supervised by the Department of Financial and Professional
Regulation, consisting of not less than 40 hours of
training which includes theory of law enforcement,
liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person
shall be considered to be eligible for this exemption if he
or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for
a security officer and 20 hours of required firearm
training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the
Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

Conditions for renewal of firearm control cards issued
under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as
for those issued under the provisions of the Private
Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint
Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card
shall be carried by the security guard at all times when he
or she is in possession of a concealable weapon permitted
by his or her firearm control card. For purposes of this
subsection, "financial institution" means a bank, savings
and loan association, credit union or company providing
armored car services.
(9) Any person employed by an armored car company to
drive an armored car, while actually engaged in the
performance of his duties.
(10) Persons who have been classified as peace officers
pursuant to the Peace Officer Fire Investigation Act.
(11) Investigators of the Office of the State's
Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor authorized by the board of
governors of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate
Prosecutor to carry weapons pursuant to Section 7.06 of the
State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act.
(12) Special investigators appointed by a State's
Attorney under Section 3-9005 of the Counties Code.
(12.5) Probation officers while in the performance of
their duties, or while commuting between their homes,
places of employment or specific locations that are part of

their assigned duties, with the consent of the chief judge
of the circuit for which they are employed, if they have
received weapons training according to requirements of the
Peace Officer and Probation Officer Firearm Training Act.
(13) Court Security Officers while in the performance
of their official duties, or while commuting between their
homes and places of employment, with the consent of the
Sheriff.
(13.5) A person employed as an armed security guard at
a nuclear energy, storage, weapons or development site or
facility regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
who has completed the background screening and training
mandated by the rules and regulations of the Nuclear
Regulatory Commission.
(14) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of weapons
to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through
(13.5) of this subsection to possess those weapons.
(a-5) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) do not apply
to or affect any person carrying a concealed pistol, revolver,
or handgun and the person has been issued a currently valid
license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act at the time of
the commission of the offense.
(a-6) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) do not apply
to or affect a qualified current or retired law enforcement
officer qualified under the laws of this State or under the
federal Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act.

(b) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section
24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:
(1) Members of any club or organization organized for
the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon
established target ranges, whether public or private, and
patrons of such ranges, while such members or patrons are
using their firearms on those target ranges.
(2) Duly authorized military or civil organizations
while parading, with the special permission of the
Governor.
(3) Hunters, trappers or fishermen with a license or
permit while engaged in hunting, trapping or fishing.
(4) Transportation of weapons that are broken down in a
non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.
(5) Carrying or possessing any pistol, revolver, stun
gun or taser or other firearm on the land or in the legal
dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's
permission.
(c) Subsection 24-1(a)(7) does not apply to or affect any
of the following:
(1) Peace officers while in performance of their
official duties.
(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons,
penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the
detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.
(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of

the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in
the performance of their official duty.
(4) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of machine
guns to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through
(3) of this subsection to possess machine guns, if the
machine guns are broken down in a non-functioning state or
are not immediately accessible.
(5) Persons licensed under federal law to manufacture
any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be
discharged by a single function of the firing device, or
ammunition for such weapons, and actually engaged in the
business of manufacturing such weapons or ammunition, but
only with respect to activities which are within the lawful
scope of such business, such as the manufacture,
transportation, or testing of such weapons or ammunition.
This exemption does not authorize the general private
possession of any weapon from which 8 or more shots or
bullets can be discharged by a single function of the
firing device, but only such possession and activities as
are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing
business described in this paragraph.
During transportation, such weapons shall be broken
down in a non-functioning state or not immediately
accessible.
(6) The manufacture, transport, testing, delivery,
transfer or sale, and all lawful commercial or experimental

activities necessary thereto, of rifles, shotguns, and
weapons made from rifles or shotguns, or ammunition for
such rifles, shotguns or weapons, where engaged in by a
person operating as a contractor or subcontractor pursuant
to a contract or subcontract for the development and supply
of such rifles, shotguns, weapons or ammunition to the
United States government or any branch of the Armed Forces
of the United States, when such activities are necessary
and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.
The exemption granted under this subdivision (c)(6)
shall also apply to any authorized agent of any such
contractor or subcontractor who is operating within the
scope of his employment, where such activities involving
such weapon, weapons or ammunition are necessary and
incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.
(7) A person possessing a rifle with a barrel or
barrels less than 16 inches in length if: (A) the person
has been issued a Curios and Relics license from the U.S.
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives; or (B)
the person is an active member of a bona fide, nationally
recognized military re-enacting group and the modification
is required and necessary to accurately portray the weapon
for historical re-enactment purposes; the re-enactor is in
possession of a valid and current re-enacting group
membership credential; and the overall length of the weapon
as modified is not less than 26 inches.

(d) Subsection 24-1(a)(1) does not apply to the purchase,
possession or carrying of a black-jack or slung-shot by a peace
officer.
(e) Subsection 24-1(a)(8) does not apply to any owner,
manager or authorized employee of any place specified in that
subsection nor to any law enforcement officer.
(f) Subsection 24-1(a)(4) and subsection 24-1(a)(10) and
Section 24-1.6 do not apply to members of any club or
organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting
at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or
private, while using their firearms on those target ranges.
(g) Subsections 24-1(a)(11) and 24-3.1(a)(6) do not apply
to:
(1) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of
the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in
the performance of their official duty.
(2) Bonafide collectors of antique or surplus military
ordnance.
(3) Laboratories having a department of forensic
ballistics, or specializing in the development of
ammunition or explosive ordnance.
(4) Commerce, preparation, assembly or possession of
explosive bullets by manufacturers of ammunition licensed
by the federal government, in connection with the supply of
those organizations and persons exempted by subdivision
(g)(1) of this Section, or like organizations and persons

outside this State, or the transportation of explosive
bullets to any organization or person exempted in this
Section by a common carrier or by a vehicle owned or leased
by an exempted manufacturer.
(g-5) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to or affect
persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any device or
attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in
silencing the report of any firearm, firearms, or ammunition
for those firearms equipped with those devices, and actually
engaged in the business of manufacturing those devices,
firearms, or ammunition, but only with respect to activities
that are within the lawful scope of that business, such as the
manufacture, transportation, or testing of those devices,
firearms, or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the
general private possession of any device or attachment of any
kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the
report of any firearm, but only such possession and activities
as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing
business described in this subsection (g-5). During
transportation, these devices shall be detached from any weapon
or not immediately accessible.
(g-6) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section
24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any parole agent or parole
supervisor who meets the qualifications and conditions
prescribed in Section 3-14-1.5 of the Unified Code of
Corrections.

(g-7) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to a peace
officer while serving as a member of a tactical response team
or special operations team. A peace officer may not personally
own or apply for ownership of a device or attachment of any
kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the
report of any firearm. These devices shall be owned and
maintained by lawfully recognized units of government whose
duties include the investigation of criminal acts.
(g-10) Subsections 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(8), and
24-1(a)(10), and Sections 24-1.6 and 24-3.1 do not apply to an
athlete's possession, transport on official Olympic and
Paralympic transit systems established for athletes, or use of
competition firearms sanctioned by the International Olympic
Committee, the International Paralympic Committee, the
International Shooting Sport Federation, or USA Shooting in
connection with such athlete's training for and participation
in shooting competitions at the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic
Games and sanctioned test events leading up to the 2016 Olympic
and Paralympic Games.
(h) An information or indictment based upon a violation of
any subsection of this Article need not negative any exemptions
contained in this Article. The defendant shall have the burden
of proving such an exemption.
(i) Nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or
affect the transportation, carrying, or possession, of any
pistol or revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm consigned

to a common carrier operating under license of the State of
Illinois or the federal government, where such transportation,
carrying, or possession is incident to the lawful
transportation in which such common carrier is engaged; and
nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the
transportation, carrying, or possession of any pistol,
revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm, not the subject of
and regulated by subsection 24-1(a)(7) or subsection 24-2(c) of
this Article, which is unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm
carrying box, shipping box, or other container, by the
possessor of a valid Firearm Owners Identification Card.
(Source: P.A. 99-174, eff. 7-29-15; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17.)
Section 99. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon
becoming law.