Bill Text: MO HB1692 | 2010 | Regular Session | Enrolled
Bill Title: Changes the laws regarding real estate; death registrations; cemeteries; architects, engineers, and surveyors; mechanic's liens; child support; clean energy projects; and appraisers
Spectrum: Partisan Bill (Republican 1-0)
Status: (Passed) 2010-07-12 - Delivered to Secretary of State (G) [HB1692 Detail]
Download: Missouri-2010-HB1692-Enrolled.html
SECOND REGULAR SESSION
[TRULY AGREED TO AND FINALLY PASSED]
SENATE SUBSTITUTE FOR
SENATE COMMITTEE SUBSTITUTE FOR
HOUSE COMMITTEE SUBSTITUTE NO. 2 FOR
HOUSE BILL NOS. 1692, 1209, 1405, 1499, 1535 & 1811
95TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY
AN ACT
To repeal sections 193.145, 193.265, 208.010, 214.160, 214.270, 214.276, 214.277, 214.283, 214.290, 214.300, 214.310, 214.320, 214.325, 214.330, 214.335, 214.340, 214.345, 214.360, 214.363, 214.365, 214.367, 214.387, 214.392, 214.400, 214.410, 214.500, 214.504, 214.508, 214.512, 214.516, 214.550, 288.034, 327.031, 327.041, 327.272, 327.351, 327.411, 339.010, 339.020, 339.030, 339.040, 339.080, 339.110, 339.160, 339.170, 339.503, 339.710, 452.340, 452.430, 454.475, 454.517, 454.557, 454.1003, 488.429, 537.296, 563.011, 563.031, 571.030, 571.070, 571.104, and 571.107, RSMo, and to enact in lieu thereof one-hundred four new sections relating to real estate, with penalty provisions.
Be it enacted by the General Assembly of the state of Missouri, as follows:
Section A. Sections 193.145, 193.265, 208.010, 214.160, 214.270, 214.276, 214.277, 214.283, 214.290, 214.300, 214.310, 214.320, 214.325, 214.330, 214.335, 214.340, 214.345, 214.360, 214.363, 214.365, 214.367, 214.387, 214.392, 214.400, 214.410, 214.500, 214.504, 214.508, 214.512, 214.516, 214.550, 288.034, 327.031, 327.041, 327.272, 327.351, 327.411, 339.010, 339.020, 339.030, 339.040, 339.080, 339.110, 339.160, 339.170, 339.503, 339.710, 452.340, 452.430, 454.475, 454.517, 454.557, 454.1003, 488.429, 537.296, 563.011, 563.031, 571.030, 571.070, 571.104, and 571.107, RSMo, are repealed and one-hundred four new sections enacted in lieu thereof, to be known as sections 60.670, 67.2800, 67.2805, 67.2810, 67.2815, 67.2820, 67.2825, 67.2830, 67.2835, 171.185, 193.145, 193.265, 208.010, 214.160, 214.270, 214.276, 214.277, 214.282, 214.283, 214.300, 214.310, 214.320, 214.325, 214.330, 214.335, 214.340, 214.345, 214.360, 214.363, 214.365, 214.367, 214.387, 214.389, 214.392, 214.400, 214.410, 214.500, 214.504, 214.508, 214.512, 214.516, 214.550, 246.310, 288.034, 306.532, 327.031, 327.041, 327.272, 327.351, 327.411, 339.010, 339.020, 339.030, 339.040, 339.080, 339.110, 339.160, 339.170, 339.503, 339.710, 339.845, 339.1100, 339.1105, 339.1110, 339.1115, 339.1120, 339.1125, 339.1130, 339.1135, 339.1140, 339.1145, 339.1150, 339.1155, 339.1160, 339.1170, 339.1175, 339.1180, 339.1185, 339.1190, 339.1200, 339.1205, 339.1210, 339.1215, 339.1220, 339.1230, 339.1235, 339.1240, 429.016, 441.645, 452.340, 452.430, 454.475, 454.517, 454.557, 454.1003, 488.429, 493.055, 537.296, 563.011, 563.031, 571.030, 571.070, 571.104, and 571.107 to read as follows:
60.670. 1. As used in this section, the following terms shall mean:
(1) "Cadastral parcel mapping", an accurately delineated identification of all real property parcels. The cadastral map is based upon the USPLSS. For cadastral parcel maps the position of the legal framework is derived from the USPLSS, existing tax maps, and tax database legal descriptions, recorded deeds, recorded surveys, and recorded subdivision plats.
(2) "Digital cadastral parcel mapping", encompasses the concepts of automated mapping, graphic display and output, data analysis, and data base management as pertains to cadastral parcel mapping. Digital cadastral parcel mapping systems consist of hardware, software, data, people, organizations, and institutional arrangements for collecting, storing, analyzing, and disseminating information about the location and areas of parcels and the USPLSS;
(3) "USPLSS" or "United States public land survey system", a survey executed under the authority of the United States government as recorded on the official plats and field notes of the United States public land survey maintained by the land survey program of the department of natural resources;
(4) "Tax map", a document or map for taxation purposes representing the location, dimensions, and other relevant information pertaining to a parcel of land subject to property taxes.
2. The office of the state land surveyor established within the department of natural resources shall promulgate rules and regulations establishing minimum standards for digital cadastral parcel mapping. Any rule or portion of a rule, as that term is defined in section 536.010, that is created under the authority delegated in this section shall become effective only if it complies with and is subject to all of the provisions of chapter 536, and, if applicable, section 536.028. This section and chapter 536, are nonseverable and if any of the powers vested with the general assembly pursuant to chapter 536, to review, to delay the effective date, or to disapprove and annul a rule are subsequently held unconstitutional, then the grant of rulemaking authority and any rule proposed or adopted after August 28, 2010, shall be invalid and void.
3. Any map designed and used to reflect legal property descriptions or boundaries for use in a digital cadastral mapping system shall comply with the rules promulgated under this section, unless the party requesting the map specifies otherwise in writing, the map was designed and in use prior to the promulgation of the rules, or the parties requesting and designing the map have already agreed to the terms of their contract on the effective date of the rules promulgation.
67.2800. 1. Sections 67.2800 to 67.2835 shall be known and may be cited as the "Property Assessment Clean Energy Act".
2. As used in sections 67.2800 to 67.2835, the following words and terms shall mean:
(1) "Assessment contract", a contract entered into between a clean energy development board and a property owner under which the property owner agrees to pay an annual assessment for a period of up to twenty years in exchange for financing of an energy efficiency improvement or a renewable energy improvement;
(2) "Authority", the state environmental improvement and energy resources authority established under section 260.010;
(3) "Bond", any bond, note, or similar instrument issued by or on behalf of a clean energy development board;
(4) "Clean energy conduit financing", the financing of energy efficiency improvements or renewable energy improvements for a single parcel of property or a unified development consisting of multiple adjoining parcels of property under section 67.2825;
(5) "Clean energy development board", a board formed by one or more municipalities under section 67.2810;
(6) "Energy efficiency improvement", any acquisition, installation, or modification on or of publicly or privately owned property designed to reduce the energy consumption of such property, including but not limited to:
(a) Insulation in walls, roofs, attics, floors, foundations, and heating and cooling distribution systems;
(b) Storm windows and doors, multiglazed windows and doors, heat-absorbing or heat-reflective windows and doors, and other window and door improvements designed to reduce energy consumption;
(c) Automatic energy control systems;
(d) Heating, ventilating, or air conditioning distribution system modifications and replacements;
(e) Caulking and weatherstripping;
(f) Replacement or modification of lighting fixtures to increase energy efficiency of the lighting system without increasing the overall illumination of the building unless the increase in illumination is necessary to conform to applicable state or local building codes;
(g) Energy recovery systems; and
(h) Daylighting systems;
(7) "Municipality", any county, city, or incorporated town or village of this state;
(8) "Project", any energy efficiency improvement or renewable energy improvement;
(9) "Property assessed clean energy local finance fund", a fund that may be established by the authority for the purpose of making loans to clean energy development boards to establish and maintain property assessed clean energy programs;
(10) "Property assessed clean energy program", a program established by a clean energy development board to finance energy efficiency improvements or renewable energy improvements under section 67.2820;
(11) "Renewable energy improvement", any acquisition and installation of a fixture, product, system, device, or combination thereof on publicly or privately owned property that produces energy from renewable resources, including, but not limited to photovoltaic systems, solar thermal systems, wind systems, biomass systems, or geothermal systems.
3. All projects undertaken under sections 67.2800 to 67.2835 are subject to the applicable municipality's ordinances and regulations, including, but not limited to those ordinances and regulations concerning zoning, subdivision, building, fire safety, and historic or architectural review.
67.2805. 1. The authority may, as needed, promulgate administrative rules and regulations relating to the following:
(1) Guidelines and specifications for administering the property assessed clean energy local finance fund; and
(2) Any clarification to the definitions of energy efficiency improvement and renewable energy improvement as the authority may determine is necessary or advisable.
2. Any rule or portion of a rule, as that term is defined in section 536.010, that is created under the authority delegated in this section shall become effective only if it complies with and is subject to all of the provisions of chapter 536 and, if applicable, section 536.028. This section and chapter 536 are nonseverable and if any of the powers vested with the general assembly under chapter 536 to review, to delay the effective date, or to disapprove and annul a rule are subsequently held unconstitutional, then the grant of rulemaking authority and any rule proposed or adopted after August 28, 2010, shall be invalid and void.
67.2810. 1. One or more municipalities may form clean energy development boards for the purpose of exercising the powers described in sections 67.2800 to 67.2835. Each clean energy development board shall consist of not less than three members, as set forth in the ordinance or order establishing the clean energy development board. Members shall serve terms as set forth in the ordinance or order establishing the clean energy development board and shall be appointed:
(1) If only one municipality is participating in the clean energy development board, by the chief elected officer of the municipality with the consent of the governing body of the municipality; or
(2) If more than one municipality is participating, in a manner agreed to by all participating municipalities.
2. A clean energy development board shall be a political subdivision of the state and shall have all powers necessary and convenient to carry out and effectuate the provisions of sections 67.2800 to 67.2835, including, but not limited to the following:
(1) To adopt, amend, and repeal bylaws, which are not inconsistent with sections 67.2800 to 67.2835;
(2) To adopt an official seal;
(3) To sue and be sued;
(4) To make and enter into contracts and other instruments with public and private entities;
(5) To accept grants, guarantees, and donations of property, labor, services, and other things of value from any public or private source;
(6) To employ or contract for such managerial, legal, technical, clerical, accounting, or other assistance it deems advisable;
(7) To levy and collect special assessments under an assessment contract with a property owner and to record such special assessments as a lien on the property;
(8) To borrow money from any public or private source and issue bonds and provide security for the repayment of the same;
(9) To finance a project under an assessment contract;
(10) To collect reasonable fees and charges in connection with making and servicing assessment contracts and in connection with any technical, consultative, or project assistance services offered;
(11) To invest any funds not required for immediate disbursement in obligations of the state of Missouri or of the United States or any agency or instrumentality thereof, or in bank certificates of deposit; provided, however, the limitations on investments provided in this subdivision shall not apply to proceeds acquired from the sale of bonds which are held by a corporate trustee; and
(12) To take whatever actions necessary to participate in and administer a clean energy conduit financing or a property assessed clean energy program.
3. No later than July first of each year, the clean energy development board shall file with each municipality that participated in the formation of the clean energy development board and with the director of the department of natural resources, an annual report for the preceding calendar year that includes:
(1) A brief description of each project financed by the clean energy development board during the preceding calendar year, which shall include the physical address of the property, the name or names of the property owner, an itemized list of the costs of the project, and the name of any contractors used to complete the project;
(2) The amount of assessments due and the amount collected during the preceding calendar year;
(3) The amount of clean energy development board administrative costs incurred during the preceding calendar year;
(4) The estimated cumulative energy savings resulting from all energy efficiency improvements financed during the preceding calendar year; and
(5) The estimated cumulative energy produced by all renewable energy improvements financed during the preceding calendar year.
4. No lawsuit to set aside the formation of a clean energy development board or to otherwise question the proceedings related thereto shall be brought after the expiration of sixty days from the effective date of the ordinance or order creating the clean energy development board. No lawsuit to set aside the approval of a project, an assessment contract, or a special assessment levied by a clean energy development board, or to otherwise question the proceedings related thereto shall be brought after the expiration of sixty days from the date that the assessment contract is executed.
67.2815. 1. A clean energy development board shall not enter into an assessment contract or levy or collect a special assessment for a project without making a finding that there are sufficient resources to complete the project and that the estimated economic benefit expected from the project during the financing period is equal to or greater than the cost of the project.
2. An assessment contract shall be executed by the clean energy development board and the benefitted property owner or property owners and shall provide:
(1) A description of the project, including the estimated cost of the project and details on how the project will either reduce energy consumption or create energy from renewable sources;
(2) A mechanism for:
(a) Verifying the final costs of the project upon its completion; and
(b) Ensuring that any amounts advanced or otherwise paid by the clean energy development board toward costs of the project will not exceed the final cost of the project;
(3) An acknowledgment by the property owner that the property owner has received or will receive a special benefit by financing a project through the clean energy development board that equals or exceeds the total assessments due under the assessment contract;
(4) An agreement by the property owner to pay annual special assessments for a period not to exceed twenty years, as specified in the assessment contract;
(5) A statement that the obligations set forth in the assessment contract, including the obligation to pay annual special assessments, are a covenant that shall run with the land and be obligations upon future owners of such property; and
(6) An acknowledgment that no subdivision of property subject to the assessment contract shall be valid unless the assessment contract or an amendment thereof divides the total annual special assessment due between the newly subdivided parcels pro rata to the special benefit realized by each subdivided parcel.
3. The total special assessments levied against a property under an assessment contract shall not exceed the sum of the cost of the project, including any required energy audits and inspections, or portion thereof financed through the participation in a property assessed clean energy program or clean energy conduit financing, including the costs of any audits or inspections required by the clean energy development board, plus such administration fees, interest, and other financing costs reasonably required by the clean energy development board.
4. The clean energy development board shall provide a copy of each signed assessment contract to the local county assessor and county collector and shall cause a copy of such assessment contract to be recorded in the real estate records of the county recorder of deeds.
5. Special assessments agreed to under an assessment contract shall be a lien on the property against which it is assessed on behalf of the applicable clean energy development board from the date that each annual assessment under the assessment contract becomes due. Such special assessments shall be collected by the county collector in the same manner and with the same priority as ad valorem real property taxes. Once collected, the county collector shall pay over such special assessment revenues to the clean energy development board in the same manner in which revenues from ad valorem real property taxes are paid to other taxing districts. Such special assessments shall be collected as provided in this subsection from all subsequent property owners, including the state and all political subdivisions thereof, for the term of the assessment contract.
6. Any clean energy development board that contracts for outside administrative services to provide financing origination for a project shall offer the right of first refusal to enter into such a contract to a federally insured depository institution with a physical presence in Missouri upon the same terms and conditions as would otherwise be approved by the clean energy development board. Such right of first refusal shall not be applicable to the origination of any transaction that involves the issuance of bonds by the clean energy development board.
67.2820. 1. Any clean energy development board may establish a property assessed clean energy program to finance energy efficiency improvements or renewable energy improvements. A property assessed clean energy program shall consist of a program whereby a property owner may apply to a clean energy development board to finance the costs of a project through annual special assessments levied under an assessment contract.
2. A clean energy development board may establish application requirements and criteria for project financing approval as it deems necessary to effectively administer such program and ration available funding among projects, including but not limited to requiring projects to meet certain energy efficiency standards.
3. Clean energy development boards shall ensure that any property owner approved by the board to participate in a property assessed clean energy program or clean energy conduit financing under sections 67.2800 to 67.2835 shall have good credit worthiness or shall otherwise be considered a low risk for failure to meet the obligations of the program or conduit financing.
4. A clean energy development board may require an initial energy audit conducted by a qualified home energy auditor as defined in subdivision (4) of subsection 1 of section 640.153 as a prerequisite to project financing through a property assessed clean energy program as well as inspections to verify project completion.
67.2825. 1. In lieu of financing a project through a property assessed clean energy program, a clean energy development board may seek to finance any number of projects to be installed within a single parcel of property or within a unified development consisting of multiple adjoining parcels of property by participating in a clean energy conduit financing.
2. A clean energy conduit financing shall consist of the issuance of bonds under section 67.2830 payable from the special assessment revenues collected under an assessment contract with the property owner participating in the clean energy conduit financing and any other revenues pledged thereto.
67.2830. 1. A clean energy development board may issue bonds payable from special assessment revenues generated by assessment contracts and any other revenues pledged thereto. The bonds shall be authorized by resolution of the clean energy development board, shall bear such date or dates, and shall mature at such time or times as the resolution shall specify, provided that the term of any bonds issued for a clean energy conduit financing shall not exceed twenty years. The bonds shall be in such denomination, bear interest at such rate, be in such form, be issued in such manner, be payable in such place or places, and be subject to redemption as such resolution may provide. Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary under this section, issuance of the bonds shall conform to the requirements of subsection 1 of section 108.170.
2. Any bonds issued under this section shall not constitute an indebtedness of the state or any municipality. Neither the state nor any municipality shall be liable on such bonds, and the form of such bonds shall contain a statement to such effect.
67.2835. The director of the department of economic development is authorized to allocate the state's residual share, or any portion thereof, of the national qualified energy conservation bond limitation under Section 54D of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, for any purposes described therein to the authority, any clean energy development board, the state, any political subdivision, instrumentality, or other body corporate and politic.
171.185. No school district located in any city of the third classification with more than forty-six thousand eight hundred but fewer than forty-seven thousand inhabitants shall operate a materials recovery and recycling facility within five hundred feet of a residential property.
193.145. 1. A certificate of death for each death which occurs in this state shall be filed with the local registrar, or as otherwise directed by the state registrar, within five days after death and shall be registered if such certificate has been completed and filed pursuant to this section. All data providers in the death registration process, including, but not limited to, the state registrar, local registrars, the state medical examiner, county medical examiners, coroners, funeral directors, embalmers, sheriffs, attending physicians and resident physicians, chief medical officers of licensed health care facilities, and other public or private institutions providing medical care, treatment, or confinement to persons, shall be required to use any electronic death registration system required under subsection 1 of section 193.265 within six months of the system being certified by the director of the department of health and senior services to be operational and available to all data providers in the death registration process. Nothing in this section shall prevent the state registrar from adopting pilot programs or voluntary electronic death registration programs until such time as the system can be certified, however, no such pilot or voluntary electronic death registration program shall prevent the filing of a death certificate with the local registrar or the ability to obtain certified copies of death certificates under subsection 2 of section 193.265 until six months after said certification that the system is operational.
2. If the place of death is unknown but the dead body is found in this state, the certificate of death shall be completed and filed pursuant to the provisions of this section. The place where the body is found shall be shown as the place of death. The date of death shall be the date on which the remains were found.
3. When death occurs in a moving conveyance in the United States and the body is first removed from the conveyance in this state, the death shall be registered in this state and the place where the body is first removed shall be considered the place of death. When a death occurs on a moving conveyance while in international waters or air space or in a foreign country or its air space and the body is first removed from the conveyance in this state, the death shall be registered in this state but the certificate shall show the actual place of death if such place may be determined.
4. The funeral director or person in charge of final disposition of the dead body shall file the certificate of death. The funeral director or person in charge of the final disposition of the dead body shall obtain or verify:
(1) The personal data from the next of kin or the best qualified person or source available; and
(2) The medical certification from the person responsible for such certification.
5. The medical certification shall be completed, attested to its accuracy either by signature or an electronic process approved by the department, and returned to the funeral director or person in charge of final disposition within seventy-two hours after death by the physician in charge of the patient's care for the illness or condition which resulted in death. In the absence of the physician or with the physician's approval the certificate may be completed and attested to its accuracy either by signature or an approved electronic process by the physician's associate physician, the chief medical officer of the institution in which death occurred, or the physician who performed an autopsy upon the decedent, provided such individual has access to the medical history of the case, views the deceased at or after death and death is due to natural causes. The state registrar may approve alternate methods of obtaining and processing the medical certification and filing the death certificate. The Social Security number of any individual who has died shall be placed in the records relating to the death and recorded on the death certificate.
6. When death occurs from natural causes more than thirty-six hours after the decedent was last treated by a physician, the case shall be referred to the county medical examiner or coroner or physician or local registrar for investigation to determine and certify the cause of death. If the death is determined to be of a natural cause, the medical examiner or coroner or local registrar shall refer the certificate of death to the attending physician for such physician's certification. If the attending physician refuses or is otherwise unavailable, the medical examiner or coroner or local registrar shall attest to the accuracy of the certificate of death either by signature or an approved electronic process within thirty-six hours.
7. If the circumstances suggest that the death was caused by other than natural causes, the medical examiner or coroner shall determine the cause of death and shall complete and attest to the accuracy either by signature or an approved electronic process the medical certification within seventy-two hours after taking charge of the case.
8. If the cause of death cannot be determined within seventy-two hours after death, the attending medical examiner or coroner or attending physician or local registrar shall give the funeral director, or person in charge of final disposition of the dead body, notice of the reason for the delay, and final disposition of the body shall not be made until authorized by the medical examiner or coroner, attending physician or local registrar.
9. When a death is presumed to have occurred within this state but the body cannot be located, a death certificate may be prepared by the state registrar upon receipt of an order of a court of competent jurisdiction which shall include the finding of facts required to complete the death certificate. Such a death certificate shall be marked "Presumptive", show on its face the date of registration, and identify the court and the date of decree.
193.265. 1. For the issuance of a certification or copy of a death record, the applicant shall pay a fee of thirteen dollars for the first certification or copy and a fee of ten dollars for each additional copy ordered at that time. For the issuance of a certification or copy of a birth, marriage, divorce, or fetal death record, the applicant shall pay a fee of fifteen dollars. All fees shall be deposited to the state department of revenue. Beginning August 28, 2004, for each vital records fee collected, the director of revenue shall credit four dollars to the general revenue fund, five dollars to the children's trust fund, one dollar shall be credited to the endowed care cemetery audit fund, and three dollars for the first copy of death records and five dollars for birth, marriage, divorce, and fetal death records shall be credited to the Missouri public services health fund established in section 192.900, RSMo. Money in the endowed care cemetery audit fund shall be available by appropriation to the division of professional registration to pay its expenses in administering sections 214.270 to 214.410, RSMo. All interest earned on money deposited in the endowed care cemetery audit fund shall be credited to the endowed care cemetery fund. Notwithstanding the provisions of section 33.080, RSMo, to the contrary, money placed in the endowed care cemetery audit fund shall not be transferred and placed to the credit of general revenue until the amount in the fund at the end of the biennium exceeds three times the amount of the appropriation from the endowed care cemetery audit fund for the preceding fiscal year. The money deposited in the public health services fund under this section shall be deposited in a separate account in the fund, and moneys in such account, upon appropriation, shall be used to automate and improve the state vital records system, and develop and maintain an electronic birth and death registration system [which shall be implemented no later than December 31, 2009]. For any search of the files and records, when no record is found, the state shall be entitled to a fee equal to the amount for a certification of a vital record for a five-year search to be paid by the applicant. For the processing of each legitimation, adoption, court order or recording after the registrant's twelfth birthday, the state shall be entitled to a fee equal to the amount for a certification of a vital record. Except whenever a certified copy or copies of a vital record is required to perfect any claim of any person on relief, or any dependent of any person who was on relief for any claim upon the government of the state or United States, the state registrar shall, upon request, furnish a certified copy or so many certified copies as are necessary, without any fee or compensation therefor.
2. For the issuance of a certification of a death record by the local registrar, the applicant shall pay a fee of thirteen dollars for the first certification or copy and a fee of ten dollars for each additional copy ordered at that time. For the issuance of a certification or copy of a birth, marriage, divorce, or fetal death record, the applicant shall pay a fee of fifteen dollars. All fees shall be deposited to the official city or county health agency. A certified copy of a death record by the local registrar can only be issued within twenty-four hours of receipt of the record by the local registrar. Computer-generated certifications of death records may be issued by the local registrar after twenty-four hours of receipt of the records. The fees paid to the official county health agency shall be retained by the local agency for local public health purposes.
208.010. 1. In determining the eligibility of a claimant for public assistance pursuant to this law, it shall be the duty of the division of family services to consider and take into account all facts and circumstances surrounding the claimant, including his or her living conditions, earning capacity, income and resources, from whatever source received, and if from all the facts and circumstances the claimant is not found to be in need, assistance shall be denied. In determining the need of a claimant, the costs of providing medical treatment which may be furnished pursuant to sections 208.151 to 208.158 and 208.162 shall be disregarded. The amount of benefits, when added to all other income, resources, support, and maintenance shall provide such persons with reasonable subsistence compatible with decency and health in accordance with the standards developed by the division of family services; provided, when a husband and wife are living together, the combined income and resources of both shall be considered in determining the eligibility of either or both. "Living together" for the purpose of this chapter is defined as including a husband and wife separated for the purpose of obtaining medical care or nursing home care, except that the income of a husband or wife separated for such purpose shall be considered in determining the eligibility of his or her spouse, only to the extent that such income exceeds the amount necessary to meet the needs (as defined by rule or regulation of the division) of such husband or wife living separately. In determining the need of a claimant in federally aided programs there shall be disregarded such amounts per month of earned income in making such determination as shall be required for federal participation by the provisions of the federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C.A. 301 et seq.), or any amendments thereto. When federal law or regulations require the exemption of other income or resources, the division of family services may provide by rule or regulation the amount of income or resources to be disregarded.
2. Benefits shall not be payable to any claimant who:
(1) Has or whose spouse with whom he or she is living has, prior to July 1, 1989, given away or sold a resource within the time and in the manner specified in this subdivision. In determining the resources of an individual, unless prohibited by federal statutes or regulations, there shall be included (but subject to the exclusions pursuant to subdivisions (4) and (5) of this subsection, and subsection 5 of this section) any resource or interest therein owned by such individual or spouse within the twenty-four months preceding the initial investigation, or at any time during which benefits are being drawn, if such individual or spouse gave away or sold such resource or interest within such period of time at less than fair market value of such resource or interest for the purpose of establishing eligibility for benefits, including but not limited to benefits based on December, 1973, eligibility requirements, as follows:
(a) Any transaction described in this subdivision shall be presumed to have been for the purpose of establishing eligibility for benefits or assistance pursuant to this chapter unless such individual furnishes convincing evidence to establish that the transaction was exclusively for some other purpose;
(b) The resource shall be considered in determining eligibility from the date of the transfer for the number of months the uncompensated value of the disposed of resource is divisible by the average monthly grant paid or average Medicaid payment in the state at the time of the investigation to an individual or on his or her behalf under the program for which benefits are claimed, provided that:
a. When the uncompensated value is twelve thousand dollars or less, the resource shall not be used in determining eligibility for more than twenty-four months; or
b. When the uncompensated value exceeds twelve thousand dollars, the resource shall not be used in determining eligibility for more than sixty months;
(2) The provisions of subdivision (1) of this subsection shall not apply to a transfer, other than a transfer to claimant's spouse, made prior to March 26, 1981, when the claimant furnishes convincing evidence that the uncompensated value of the disposed of resource or any part thereof is no longer possessed or owned by the person to whom the resource was transferred;
(3) Has received, or whose spouse with whom he or she is living has received, benefits to which he or she was not entitled through misrepresentation or nondisclosure of material facts or failure to report any change in status or correct information with respect to property or income as required by section 208.210. A claimant ineligible pursuant to this subsection shall be ineligible for such period of time from the date of discovery as the division of family services may deem proper; or in the case of overpayment of benefits, future benefits may be decreased, suspended or entirely withdrawn for such period of time as the division may deem proper;
(4) Owns or possesses resources in the sum of one thousand dollars or more; provided, however, that if such person is married and living with spouse, he or she, or they, individually or jointly, may own resources not to exceed two thousand dollars; and provided further, that in the case of a temporary assistance for needy families claimant, the provision of this subsection shall not apply;
(5) Prior to October 1, 1989, owns or possesses property of any kind or character, excluding amounts placed in an irrevocable prearranged funeral or burial contract [pursuant to subsection 2 of section 436.035, RSMo, and subdivision (5) of subsection 1 of section 436.053, RSMO] under chapter 436, or has an interest in property, of which he or she is the record or beneficial owner, the value of such property, as determined by the division of family services, less encumbrances of record, exceeds twenty-nine thousand dollars, or if married and actually living together with husband or wife, if the value of his or her property, or the value of his or her interest in property, together with that of such husband and wife, exceeds such amount;
(6) In the case of temporary assistance for needy families, if the parent, stepparent, and child or children in the home owns or possesses property of any kind or character, or has an interest in property for which he or she is a record or beneficial owner, the value of such property, as determined by the division of family services and as allowed by federal law or regulation, less encumbrances of record, exceeds one thousand dollars, excluding the home occupied by the claimant, amounts placed in an irrevocable prearranged funeral or burial contract [pursuant to subsection 2 of section 436.035, RSMo, and subdivision (5) of subsection 1 of section 436.053, RSMO] under chapter 436, one automobile which shall not exceed a value set forth by federal law or regulation and for a period not to exceed six months, such other real property which the family is making a good-faith effort to sell, if the family agrees in writing with the division of family services to sell such property and from the net proceeds of the sale repay the amount of assistance received during such period. If the property has not been sold within six months, or if eligibility terminates for any other reason, the entire amount of assistance paid during such period shall be a debt due the state;
(7) Is an inmate of a public institution, except as a patient in a public medical institution.
3. In determining eligibility and the amount of benefits to be granted pursuant to federally aided programs, the income and resources of a relative or other person living in the home shall be taken into account to the extent the income, resources, support and maintenance are allowed by federal law or regulation to be considered.
4. In determining eligibility and the amount of benefits to be granted pursuant to federally aided programs, the value of burial lots or any amounts placed in an irrevocable prearranged funeral or burial contract [pursuant to subsection 2 of section 436.035, RSMo, and subdivision (5) of subsection 1 of section 436.053, RSMO,] under chapter 436 shall not be taken into account or considered an asset of the burial lot owner or the beneficiary of an irrevocable prearranged funeral or funeral contract. For purposes of this section, "burial lots" means any burial space as defined in section 214.270, RSMo, and any memorial, monument, marker, tombstone or letter marking a burial space. If the beneficiary, as defined in chapter 436, RSMo, of an irrevocable prearranged funeral or burial contract receives any public assistance benefits pursuant to this chapter and if the purchaser of such contract or his or her successors in interest [cancel or amend] transfer, amend, or take any other such actions regarding the contract so that any person will be entitled to a refund, such refund shall be paid to the state of Missouri [up to the amount of public assistance benefits provided pursuant to this chapter with any remainder to be paid to those persons designated in chapter 436, RSMo] with any amount in excess of the public assistance benefits provided under this chapter to be refunded by the state of Missouri to the purchaser or his or her successors. In determining eligibility and the amount of benefits to be granted under federally aided programs, the value of any life insurance policy where a seller or provider is made the beneficiary or where the life insurance policy is assigned to a seller or provider, either being in consideration for an irrevocable prearranged funeral contract under chapter 436, shall not be taken into account or considered an asset of the beneficiary of the irrevocable prearranged funeral contract.
5. In determining the total property owned pursuant to subdivision (5) of subsection 2 of this section, or resources, of any person claiming or for whom public assistance is claimed, there shall be disregarded any life insurance policy, or prearranged funeral or burial contract, or any two or more policies or contracts, or any combination of policies and contracts, which provides for the payment of one thousand five hundred dollars or less upon the death of any of the following:
(1) A claimant or person for whom benefits are claimed; or
(2) The spouse of a claimant or person for whom benefits are claimed with whom he or she is living. If the value of such policies exceeds one thousand five hundred dollars, then the total value of such policies may be considered in determining resources; except that, in the case of temporary assistance for needy families, there shall be disregarded any prearranged funeral or burial contract, or any two or more contracts, which provides for the payment of one thousand five hundred dollars or less per family member.
6. Beginning September 30, 1989, when determining the eligibility of institutionalized spouses, as defined in 42 U.S.C. Section 1396r-5, for medical assistance benefits as provided for in section 208.151 and 42 U.S.C. Sections 1396a et seq., the division of family services shall comply with the provisions of the federal statutes and regulations. As necessary, the division shall by rule or regulation implement the federal law and regulations which shall include but not be limited to the establishment of income and resource standards and limitations. The division shall require:
(1) That at the beginning of a period of continuous institutionalization that is expected to last for thirty days or more, the institutionalized spouse, or the community spouse, may request an assessment by the division of family services of total countable resources owned by either or both spouses;
(2) That the assessed resources of the institutionalized spouse and the community spouse may be allocated so that each receives an equal share;
(3) That upon an initial eligibility determination, if the community spouse's share does not equal at least twelve thousand dollars, the institutionalized spouse may transfer to the community spouse a resource allowance to increase the community spouse's share to twelve thousand dollars;
(4) That in the determination of initial eligibility of the institutionalized spouse, no resources attributed to the community spouse shall be used in determining the eligibility of the institutionalized spouse, except to the extent that the resources attributed to the community spouse do exceed the community spouse's resource allowance as defined in 42 U.S.C. Section 1396r-5;
(5) That beginning in January, 1990, the amount specified in subdivision (3) of this subsection shall be increased by the percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers between September, 1988, and the September before the calendar year involved; and
(6) That beginning the month after initial eligibility for the institutionalized spouse is determined, the resources of the community spouse shall not be considered available to the institutionalized spouse during that continuous period of institutionalization.
7. Beginning July 1, 1989, institutionalized individuals shall be ineligible for the periods required and for the reasons specified in 42 U.S.C. Section 1396p.
8. The hearings required by 42 U.S.C. Section 1396r-5 shall be conducted pursuant to the provisions of section 208.080.
9. Beginning October 1, 1989, when determining eligibility for assistance pursuant to this chapter there shall be disregarded unless otherwise provided by federal or state statutes, the home of the applicant or recipient when the home is providing shelter to the applicant or recipient, or his or her spouse or dependent child. The division of family services shall establish by rule or regulation in conformance with applicable federal statutes and regulations a definition of the home and when the home shall be considered a resource that shall be considered in determining eligibility.
10. Reimbursement for services provided by an enrolled Medicaid provider to a recipient who is duly entitled to Title XIX Medicaid and Title XVIII Medicare Part B, Supplementary Medical Insurance (SMI) shall include payment in full of deductible and coinsurance amounts as determined due pursuant to the applicable provisions of federal regulations pertaining to Title XVIII Medicare Part B, except the applicable Title XIX cost sharing.
11. A "community spouse" is defined as being the noninstitutionalized spouse.
12. An institutionalized spouse applying for Medicaid and having a spouse living in the community shall be required, to the maximum extent permitted by law, to divert income to such community spouse to raise the community spouse's income to the level of the minimum monthly needs allowance, as described in 42 U.S.C. Section 1396r-5. Such diversion of income shall occur before the community spouse is allowed to retain assets in excess of the community spouse protected amount described in 42 U.S.C. Section 1396r-5.
214.160. The county commission shall invest or loan said trust fund or funds only in United States government, state, county or municipal bonds, [or] certificates of deposit, first real estate mortgages, or deeds of trust. They shall use the net income from said trust fund or funds or so much thereof as is necessary to support and maintain and beautify any public or private cemetery or any particular part thereof which may be designated by the person, persons or firm or association making said gift or bequest. In maintaining or supporting the cemetery or any particular part or portion thereof the commission shall as nearly as possible follow the expressed wishes of the creator of said trust fund.
214.270. As used in sections 214.270 to 214.410, the following terms mean:
(1) "Agent" or "authorized agent", any person empowered by the cemetery operator to represent the operator in dealing with the general public, including owners of the burial space in the cemetery;
(2) "Burial space", one or more than one plot, grave, mausoleum, crypt, lawn, surface lawn crypt, niche or space used or intended for the interment of the human dead;
(3) "Burial merchandise", a monument, marker, memorial, tombstone, headstone, urn, outer burial container, or similar article which may contain specific lettering, shape, color, or design as specified by the purchaser;
(4) "Cemetery", property restricted in use for the interment of the human dead by formal dedication or reservation by deed but shall not include any of the foregoing held or operated by the state or federal government or any political subdivision thereof, any incorporated city or town, any county or any religious organization, cemetery association or fraternal society holding the same for sale solely to members and their immediate families;
(5) "Cemetery association", any number of persons who shall have associated themselves by articles of agreement in writing as a not-for-profit association or organization, whether incorporated or unincorporated, formed for the purpose of ownership, preservation, care, maintenance, adornment and administration of a cemetery. Cemetery associations shall be governed by a board of directors. Directors shall serve without compensation;
(6) "Cemetery operator" or "operator", any person who owns, controls, operates or manages a cemetery;
(7) "Cemetery prearranged contract", any contract with a cemetery or cemetery operator for [goods and services covered by this chapter which includes a sale of burial merchandise in which delivery of merchandise or a valid warehouse receipt under sections 214.270 to 214.550 is deferred pursuant to written instructions from the purchaser. It shall also mean any contract for goods and services covered by sections 214.270 to 214.550 which includes a sale of burial services to be performed at a future date] burial merchandise or burial services covered by sections 214.270 to 214.410 which is entered into before the death of the individual for whom the burial merchandise or burial services are intended;
(8) "Cemetery service" or "burial service", those services performed by a cemetery owner or operator licensed as an endowed care or nonendowed cemetery including setting a monument or marker, setting a tent, excavating a grave, interment, entombment, inurnment, setting a vault, or other related services within the cemetery;
(9) "Columbarium", a building or structure for the inurnment of cremated human remains;
(10) "Community mausoleum", a mausoleum containing a substantial area of enclosed space and having either a heating, ventilating or air conditioning system;
(11) "Department", department of insurance, financial institutions and professional registration;
(12) "Developed acreage", the area which has been platted into grave spaces and has been developed with roads, paths, features, or ornamentations and in which burials can be made;
(13) "Director", director of the division of professional registration;
(14) "Division", division of professional registration;
(15) "Endowed care", the maintenance, repair and care of all burial space subject to the endowment within a cemetery, including any improvements made for the benefit of such burial space. Endowed care shall include the general overhead expenses needed to accomplish such maintenance, repair, care and improvements. Endowed care shall include the terms perpetual care, permanent care, continual care, eternal care, care of duration, or any like term;
(16) "Endowed care cemetery", a cemetery, or a section of a cemetery, which represents itself as offering endowed care and which complies with the provisions of sections 214.270 to 214.410;
(17) "Endowed care fund", "endowed care trust", or "trust", any cash or cash equivalent, to include any income therefrom, impressed with a trust by the terms of any gift, grant, contribution, payment, devise or bequest to an endowed care cemetery, or its endowed care trust, or funds to be delivered to an endowed care cemetery's trust received pursuant to a contract and accepted by any endowed care cemetery operator or his agent. This definition includes the terms endowed care funds, maintenance funds, memorial care funds, perpetual care funds, or any like term;
(18) "Escrow account", an account established in lieu of an endowed care fund as provided under section 214.330 or an account used to hold deposits under section 214.387;
(19) "Escrow agent", an attorney, title company, certified public accountant or other person authorized by the division to exercise escrow powers under the laws of this state;
(20) "Escrow agreement", an agreement subject to approval by the office between an escrow agent and a cemetery operator or its agent or related party with common ownership, to receive and administer payments under cemetery prearranged contracts sold by the cemetery operator;
(21) "Family burial ground", a cemetery in which no burial space is sold to the public and in which interments are restricted to persons related by blood or marriage;
(22) "Fraternal cemetery", a cemetery owned, operated, controlled or managed by any fraternal organization or auxiliary organizations thereof, in which the sale of burial space is restricted solely to its members and their immediate families;
(23) "Garden mausoleum", a mausoleum without a substantial area of enclosed space and having its crypt and niche fronts open to the atmosphere. Ventilation of the crypts by forced air or otherwise does not constitute a garden mausoleum as a community mausoleum;
(24) "Government cemetery", or "municipal cemetery", a cemetery owned, operated, controlled or managed by the federal government, the state or a political subdivision of the state, including a county or municipality or instrumentality thereof;
(25) "Grave" or "plot", a place of ground in a cemetery, used or intended to be used for burial of human remains;
(26) "Human remains", the body of a deceased person in any state of decomposition, as well as cremated remains;
(27) "Inurnment", placing an urn containing cremated remains in a burial space;
(28) "Lawn crypt", a burial vault or other permanent container for a casket which is permanently installed below ground prior to the time of the actual interment. A lawn crypt may permit single or multiple interments in a grave space;
(29) "Mausoleum", a structure or building for the entombment of human remains in crypts;
(30) "Niche", a space in a columbarium used or intended to be used for inurnment of cremated remains;
(31) "Nonendowed care cemetery", or "nonendowed cemetery", a cemetery or a section of a cemetery for which no endowed care trust fund has been established in accordance with sections 214.270 to 214.410;
(32) "Office", the office of endowed care cemeteries within the division of professional registration;
(33) "Owner of burial space", a person to whom the cemetery operator or his authorized agent has transferred the right of use of burial space;
(34) "Person", an individual, corporation, partnership, joint venture, association, trust or any other legal entity;
(35) "Registry", the list of cemeteries maintained in the division office for public review. The division may charge a fee for copies of the registry;
(36) "Religious cemetery", a cemetery owned, operated, controlled or managed by any church, convention of churches, religious order or affiliated auxiliary thereof in which the sale of burial space is restricted solely to its members and their immediate families;
(37) "Surface lawn crypt", a sealed burial chamber whose lid protrudes above the land surface;
(38) "Total acreage", the entire tract which is dedicated to or reserved for cemetery purposes;
(39) "Trustee of an endowed care fund", the separate legal entity qualified under section 214.330 appointed as trustee of an endowed care fund.
214.276. 1. The division may refuse to issue or renew any license, required pursuant to sections 214.270 to 214.516 for one or any combination of causes stated in subsection 2 of this section. The division shall notify the applicant in writing of the reasons for the refusal and shall advise the applicant of his or her right to file a complaint with the administrative hearing commission as provided by chapter 621, RSMo.
2. The division may cause a complaint to be filed with the administrative hearing commission as provided in chapter 621, RSMo, against any holder of any license, required by sections 214.270 to 214.516 or any person who has failed to surrender his or her license, for any one or any combination of the following causes:
(1) Use of any controlled substance, as defined in chapter 195, RSMo, or alcoholic beverage to an extent that such use impairs a person's ability to perform the work of any profession licensed or regulated by sections 214.270 to 214.516;
(2) The person has been finally adjudicated and found guilty, or entered a plea of guilty or nolo contendere, in a criminal prosecution pursuant to the laws of any state or of the United States, for any offense reasonably related to the qualifications, functions or duties of any profession licensed or regulated pursuant to sections 214.270 to 214.516, for any offense an essential element of which is fraud, dishonesty or an act of violence, or for any offense involving moral turpitude, whether or not sentence is imposed;
(3) Use of fraud, deception, misrepresentation or bribery in securing any license, issued pursuant to sections 214.270 to 214.516 or in obtaining permission to take any examination given or required pursuant to sections 214.270 to 214.516;
(4) Obtaining or attempting to obtain any fee, charge or other compensation by fraud, deception or misrepresentation;
(5) Incompetence, misconduct, gross negligence, fraud, misrepresentation or dishonesty in the performance of the functions or duties of any profession regulated by sections 214.270 to 214.516;
(6) Violation of, or assisting or enabling any person to violate, any provision of sections 214.270 to 214.516, or any lawful rule or regulation adopted pursuant to sections 214.270 to 214.516;
(7) Impersonation of any person holding a license or allowing any person to use his or her license;
(8) Disciplinary action against the holder of a license or other right to practice any profession regulated by sections 214.270 to 214.516 granted by another state, territory, federal agency or country upon grounds for which revocation or suspension is authorized in this state;
(9) A person is finally adjudged insane or incompetent by a court of competent jurisdiction;
(10) Assisting or enabling any person to practice or offer to practice any profession licensed or regulated by sections 214.270 to 214.516 who is not registered and currently eligible to practice pursuant to sections 214.270 to 214.516;
(11) Issuance of a license based upon a material mistake of fact;
(12) Failure to display a valid license;
(13) Violation of any professional trust or confidence;
(14) Use of any advertisement or solicitation which is false, misleading or deceptive to the general public or persons to whom the advertisement or solicitation is primarily directed;
(15) Willfully and through undue influence selling a burial space, cemetery services or merchandise.
3. After the filing of such complaint, the proceedings shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of chapter 621, RSMo. Upon a finding by the administrative hearing commission that the grounds, provided in subsection 2 of this section, for disciplinary action are met, the division may singly or in combination, censure or place the person named in the complaint on probation on such terms and conditions as the division deems appropriate for a period not to exceed five years, or may suspend, or revoke the license or permit or may impose a penalty allowed by subsection 4 of section 214.410. No new license shall be issued to the owner or operator of a cemetery or to any corporation controlled by such owner for three years after the revocation of the certificate of the owner or of a corporation controlled by the owner.
4. [Operators of all existing endowed care or nonendowed care cemeteries shall, prior to August twenty-eighth following August 28, 2001, apply for a license pursuant to this section. All endowed care or nonendowed care cemeteries operating in compliance with sections 214.270 to 214.516 prior to August twenty-eighth following August 28, 2001, shall be granted a license by the division upon receipt of application.
5.] The division may settle disputes arising under subsections 2 and 3 of this section by consent agreement or settlement agreement between the division and the holder of a license. Within such a settlement agreement, the division may singly or in combination impose any discipline or penalties allowed by this section or subsection 4 of section 214.410. Settlement of such disputes shall be entered into pursuant to the procedures set forth in section 621.045, RSMo.
5. Use of the procedures set out in this section shall not preclude the application of any other remedy provided by this chapter.
214.277. 1. Upon application by the division, and the necessary burden having been met, a court of general jurisdiction may grant an injunction, restraining order or other order as may be appropriate to enjoin a person from:
(1) Offering to engage or engaging in the performance of any acts or practices for which a certificate of registration or authority, permit or license is required upon a showing that such acts or practices were performed or offered to be performed without a certificate of registration or authority, permit or license; or
(2) Engaging in any practice or business authorized by a certificate of registration or authority, permit or license issued pursuant to this chapter upon a showing that the holder presents a substantial probability of serious danger to the health, safety or welfare of any resident of this state or client or patient of the licensee.
2. [Any such action shall be commenced either in the county in which such conduct occurred or in the county in which the defendant resides.
3.] Any action brought pursuant to this section shall be in addition to and not in lieu of any penalty provided by this chapter and may be brought concurrently with other actions to enforce this chapter.
214.282. 1. Each contract sold by a cemetery operator for cemetery services or for grave lots, grave spaces, markers, monuments, memorials, tombstones, crypts, niches, mausoleums, or other receptacles shall be voidable by the purchaser and deemed unenforceable unless:
(1) It is in writing;
(2) It is executed by a cemetery operator who is in compliance with the licensing provisions of this chapter;
(3) It identifies the contract purchaser and identifies the cemetery services or other items to be provided;
(4) It identifies the name and address of any trustee or escrow agent that will receive payments made pursuant to the contract under the provisions of sections 214.320, 214.330, or 214.387, if applicable;
(5) It contains the name and address of the cemetery operator; and
(6) It identifies any grounds for cancellation by the purchaser or by the cemetery operator on default of payment.
2. If a cemetery prearranged contract does not substantially comply with the provisions of this section, all payments made under such contract shall be recoverable by the purchaser, or the purchaser's legal representative, from the contract seller or other payee thereof, together with interest at the rate of ten percent per annum and all reasonable costs of collection, including attorneys' fees.
214.283. 1. Any person, entity, association, city, town, village, county or political subdivision that purchases, receives or holds any real estate used for the burial of dead human bodies, excluding a family burial ground, shall notify the office of the endowed care cemeteries of the name, location and address of such real estate on a form approved by the office, before October 1, 2010, or within thirty days of purchasing, receiving or holding such land or of being notified by the office of the requirements of this provision. No fee shall be charged for such notification nor shall any penalty be assessed for failure to register. This section shall not be deemed to exempt any operator of an endowed care cemetery or non-endowed care cemetery from being duly licensed as required by this chapter.
2. The division shall establish and maintain a registry of cemeteries and the registry shall be available to the public for review at the division office or copied upon request. The division may charge a fee for copies of the register.
(1) If, in the course of a land survey of property located in this state, a surveyor licensed pursuant to chapter 327, RSMo, locates any cemetery which has not been previously registered, the surveyor shall file a statement with the division regarding the location of the cemetery. The statement shall be filed on a form as defined by division rule. No fee shall be charged to the surveyor for such filing.
(2) Any person, family, group, association, society or county surveyor may submit to the division, on forms provided by the division, the names and locations of any cemetery located in this state for inclusion in the registry. No fee shall be charged for such submissions.
214.300. Any cemetery operator may, after October 13, 1961, qualify to operate a cemetery which has been operated as a nonendowed cemetery for a minimum of two years, as an endowed care cemetery by:
(1) So electing in compliance with section 214.280;
(2) Establishing an endowed care trust fund in cash of one thousand dollars for each acre in said cemetery with a minimum of five thousand dollars and a maximum of twenty-five thousand dollars;
(3) Filing the report required by section 214.340.
214.310. 1. Any cemetery operator who elects to operate a new cemetery as an endowed care cemetery or who represents to the public that perpetual, permanent, endowed, continual, eternal care, care of duration or similar care will be furnished cemetery property sold shall create an endowed care trust fund and shall deposit a minimum of twenty-five thousand dollars for cemeteries that have in excess of one hundred burials annually or a minimum of five thousand dollars for cemeteries that have one hundred or less burials annually in such fund before selling or disposing of any burial space in said cemetery, or in lieu thereof such cemetery owner may furnish a surety bond issued by a bonding company or insurance company authorized to do business in this state in the face amount of thirty thousand dollars, and such bond shall run to the office of endowed care cemeteries for the benefit of the care trust funds held by such cemetery. This bond shall be for the purpose of guaranteeing an accumulation of twenty-five thousand dollars in such care trust fund and also for the further purpose of assuring that the cemetery owner shall provide annual perpetual or endowment care in an amount equal to the annual reasonable return on a secured cash investment of twenty-five thousand dollars until twenty-five thousand dollars is accumulated in said endowed care trust funds, and these shall be the conditions of such surety bond; provided, however, the liability of the principal and surety on the bond shall in no event exceed thirty thousand dollars. Provided further, that whenever a cemetery owner which has made an initial deposit to the endowed care trust fund demonstrates to the satisfaction of the administrator of the office of endowed care cemeteries that more than twenty-five thousand dollars has been accumulated in the endowed care trust fund, the cemetery owner may petition the administrator of the office of endowed care cemeteries for an order to dissolve the surety bond requirement, so long as at least twenty-five thousand dollars always remains in the endowed care trust fund.
2. Construction of a mausoleum, lawn crypt, columbarium or crematorium as part of a cemetery then operated as an endowed care cemetery shall not be considered the establishment of a new cemetery for purposes of this section.
3. Any endowed care cemetery which does not maintain a [fully] adequately staffed office in the county in which the cemetery is located shall have prominently displayed on the premises a sign clearly stating the operator's name, address and telephone number. If the operator does not reside in the county in which the cemetery is located, the sign shall also state the name, address and telephone number of a resident of the county who is the authorized agent of the operator or the location of an office of the cemetery which is within ten miles of such cemetery. In jurisdictions where ordinances require signs to meet certain specifications, a weatherproof notice containing the information required by this subsection shall be sufficient.
214.320. 1. An operator of an endowed care cemetery shall establish and deposit in an endowed care trust fund not less than the following amounts for burial space sold or disposed of, with such deposits to the endowed care trust fund to be made [semiannually] monthly on all burial space that has been fully paid for to the date of deposit:
(1) A minimum of fifteen percent of the gross sales price, or twenty dollars, whichever is greater, for each grave space sold;
(2) A minimum of ten percent of the gross sales price of each crypt or niche sold in a community mausoleum, or a minimum of one hundred dollars for each crypt or [ten dollars for each niche sold in a garden mausoleum] fifty dollars for each niche sold in a community mausoleum, whichever is greater;
(3) A minimum of ten percent of the gross sales price of each crypt or niche sold in a garden mausoleum, or a minimum of one hundred dollars for each crypt or twenty-five dollars for each niche sold in a garden mausoleum, whichever is greater;
(4) A minimum of [seventy-five dollars per grave space for] ten percent of the gross sales price of each lawn crypt sold or a minimum of seventy-five dollars, whichever is greater.
2. Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision (2) of subsection 1 of this section, a cemetery operator who has made the initial deposit in trust as required by sections 214.270 to 214.410 from his own funds, and not from funds deposited with respect to sales of burial space, may deposit only one-half the minimum amounts set forth in subdivisions (1) and (2) of subsection 1 of this section, until he shall have recouped his entire initial deposit. Thereafter, he shall make the minimum deposits required under subdivisions (1), (2) [and] , (3), and (4) of subsection 1 of this section.
3. As required by section 214.340, each operator of an endowed care cemetery shall[, after August 28, 1990,] file with the division of professional registration, on a form provided by the division, an annual endowed care trust fund report. The operator of any cemetery representing the cemetery, or any portion of the cemetery, as an endowed care cemetery shall make available to the division for inspection or audit at any reasonable time only those cemetery records and trust fund records necessary to determine whether the cemetery's endowed care trust fund is in compliance with sections 214.270 to 214.410. Each cemetery operator who has established a [segregated] escrow account pursuant to section [214.385] 214.387 shall make available to the division for inspection or audit at any reasonable time those cemetery records and financial institution records necessary to determine whether the cemetery operator is in compliance with the provisions of section [214.385. All documents, records, and work product from any inspections or audits performed by or at the direction of the division shall remain in the possession of the division of professional registration and shall not be sent to the state board of embalmers and funeral directors. No charge shall be made for such inspections or audits] 214.387.
4. [If any endowed care cemetery operator conducts the trust fund accounting and record keeping outside of this state, then such operator shall maintain current and accurate copies of such accounting and record keeping within this state and such copies shall be readily available to the division for inspection or audit purposes.
5.] No cemetery operator shall operate or represent to the public by any title, description, or similar terms that a cemetery provides endowed care unless the cemetery is in compliance with the provisions of sections 214.270 to 214.410.
5. A cemetery operator shall be exempt from the provisions of chapter 436 for the sale of cemetery services or for grave lots, grave spaces, markers, monuments, memorials, tombstones, crypts, niches or mausoleums, outer burial containers or other receptacle. A cemetery operator shall be prohibited from adjusting or establishing the sales price of items with the intent of evading the trusting or escrow provisions of this chapter.
214.325. If the deposits to any endowed care trust fund [required by sections 214.270 to 214.410] are less than the total sum required to be set aside and deposited since the effective date of such sections, the cemetery operator shall correct such deficiency by depositing not less than twenty percent of such deficiency each year for five years [following August 28, 1990,] and shall file, on the form provided by the division, a statement outlining the date and amount such deposits were made. If the cemetery operator fails to correct the deficiency with respect to funds maintained under section 214.330, the cemetery operator shall thereafter not represent the cemetery as an endowed care cemetery. Any funds held in the cemetery's endowed care trust shall continue to be used for endowed care for that cemetery. The cemetery operator shall remain subject to the provisions of sections 214.270 to 214.410 for any cemetery or any section of the cemetery for which endowed care payments have been collected, subject to the penalties contained in section 214.410, and civil actions as well as subject to any regulations promulgated by the division. For purposes of this section, the term "deficiency" shall mean a deficiency in the amount required to be deposited pursuant to section 214.320, or a deficiency created by disbursements in excess of what is permitted under section 214.330 and shall not include or be affected by deficiencies or shortages caused by the fluctuating value of investments.
214.330. 1. [The endowed care fund required by sections 214.270 to 214.410 shall be permanently set aside in trust or in accordance with the provisions of subsection 2 of this section. The trustee of the endowed care trust shall be a state- or federally chartered financial institution authorized to exercise trust powers in Missouri and located in this state. The income from the endowed care fund shall be distributed to the cemetery operator at least annually or in other convenient installments. The cemetery operator shall have the duty and responsibility to apply the income to provide care and maintenance only for that part of the cemetery in which burial space shall have been sold and with respect to which sales the endowed care fund shall have been established and not for any other purpose. The principal of such funds shall be kept intact and appropriately invested by the trustee, or the independent investment advisor. An endowed care trust agreement may provide that when the principal in an endowed care trust exceeds two hundred fifty thousand dollars, investment decisions regarding the principal and undistributed income may be made by a federally registered or Missouri-registered independent qualified investment advisor designated by the cemetery owner, relieving the trustee of all liability regarding investment decisions made by such qualified investment advisor. It shall be the duty of the trustee, or the investment advisor, in the investment of such funds to exercise the diligence and care men of ordinary prudence, intelligence and discretion would employ, but with a view to permanency of investment considering probable safety of capital investment, income produced and appreciation of capital investment. The trustee's duties shall be the maintenance of records and the accounting for and investment of moneys deposited by the operator to the endowed care fund. For the purposes of sections 214.270 to 214.410, the trustee or investment advisor shall not be deemed to be responsible for the care, the maintenance, or the operation of the cemetery, or for any other matter relating to the cemetery, including, but not limited to, compliance with environmental laws and regulations. With respect to cemetery property maintained by cemetery care funds, the cemetery operator shall be responsible for the performance of the care and maintenance of the cemetery property owned by the cemetery operator and for the opening and closing of all graves, crypts, or niches for human remains in any cemetery property owned by the cemetery operator.
2. If the endowed care cemetery fund is not permanently set aside in a trust fund as required by subsection 1 of this section then the funds shall be permanently set aside in a segregated bank account which requires the signature of the cemetery owner and either the administrator of the office of endowed care cemeteries, or the signature of a licensed practicing attorney with escrow powers in this state as joint signatories for any distribution from the trust fund. No funds shall be expended without the signature of either the administrator of the office of endowed care cemeteries, or a licensed practicing attorney with escrow powers in this state. The account shall be insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or comparable deposit insurance and held in the state- or federally chartered financial institution authorized to do business in Missouri and located in this state. The income from the endowed care fund shall be distributed to the cemetery operator at least in annual or semiannual installments. The cemetery operator shall have the duty and responsibility to apply the income to provide care and maintenance only for that part of the cemetery in which burial space shall have been sold and with respect to which sales the endowed care fund shall have been established and not for any other purpose. The principal of such funds shall be kept intact and appropriately invested by the cemetery operator with written approval of either the administrator of the office of endowed care cemeteries or a licensed practicing attorney with escrow powers in this state. It shall be the duty of the cemetery owner in the investment of such funds to exercise the diligence and care a person of reasonable prudence, intelligence and discretion would employ, but with a view to permanency of investment considering probable safety of capital investment, income produced and appreciation of capital investment. The cemetery owner's duties shall be the maintenance of records and the accounting for an investment of moneys deposited by the operator to the endowed care fund. For purposes of sections 214.270 to 214.410, the administrator of the office of endowed care cemeteries or the licensed practicing attorney with escrow powers in this state shall not be deemed to be responsible for the care, maintenance, or operation of the cemetery. With respect to cemetery property maintained by cemetery care funds, the cemetery operator shall be responsible for the performance of the care and maintenance of the cemetery property owned by the cemetery operator and for the opening and closing of all graves, crypts, or niches for human remains in any cemetery property owned by the cemetery operator.
3. The cemetery operator shall be accountable to the owners of burial space in the cemetery for compliance with sections 214.270 to 214.410.
4. All endowed care funds shall be administered in accordance with an endowed care fund agreement. The endowed care fund agreement shall be subject to review and approval by the office of endowed care cemeteries or by a licensed practicing attorney with escrow powers in this state. The endowed care cemetery shall be notified in writing by the office of endowed care cemeteries or by a licensed practicing attorney with escrow powers in this state regarding the approval or disapproval of the endowed care fund agreement and regarding any changes required to be made for compliance with this chapter and the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder. A copy of the proposed endowed care fund agreement shall be submitted to the office of endowed care cemeteries. The office of endowed care cemeteries or a licensed practicing attorney with escrow powers in this state shall notify the endowed care cemetery in writing of approval and of any required change. Any amendment or change to the endowed care fund agreement shall be submitted to the office of endowed care cemeteries or to a licensed practicing attorney with escrow powers in this state for review and approval. Said amendment or change shall not be effective until approved by the office of endowed care cemeteries or by a licensed practicing attorney with escrow powers in this state. All endowed care cemeteries shall be under a continuing duty to file with the office of endowed care cemeteries or with a licensed practicing attorney with escrow powers in this state and to submit for approval any and all changes, amendment, or revisions of the endowed care fund agreement.
5. No principal shall be distributed from an endowed care trust fund except to the extent that a unitrust election is in effect with respect to such trust under the provisions of section 469.411, RSMo.] The endowed care trust fund required by sections 214.270 to 214.410 shall be permanently set aside in trust or in accordance with the provisions of subsection 2 of this section. The trustee of the endowed care trust shall be a state or federally chartered financial institution authorized to exercise trust powers in Missouri. The contact information for a trust officer or duly appointed representative of the trustee with knowledge and access to the trust fund accounting and trust fund records must be disclosed to the office or its duly authorized representative upon request.
(1) The trust fund records, including all trust fund accounting records, shall be maintained in the state of Missouri at all times or shall be electronically stored so that the records may be made available in the state of Missouri within fifteen business days of receipt of a written request. The operator of an endowed care cemetery shall maintain a current name and address of the trustee and the records custodian for the endowed care trust fund and shall supply such information to the office, or its representative, upon request;
(2) Missouri law shall control all endowed care trust funds and the Missouri courts shall have jurisdiction over endowed care trusts regardless of where records may be kept or various administrative tasks may be performed.
2. An endowed care trust fund shall be administered in accordance with Missouri law governing trusts, including but not limited to the applicable provisions of chapters 456 and 469, except as specifically provided in this subsection or where the provisions of sections 214.270 to 214.410 provide differently, provided that a cemetery operator shall not in any circumstances be authorized to restrict, enlarge, change, or modify the requirements of this section or the provisions of chapters 456 and 469 by agreement or otherwise.
(1) Income and principal of an endowed care trust fund shall be determined under the provisions of law applicable to trusts, except that the provisions of section 469.405 shall not apply.
(2) No principal shall be distributed from an endowed care trust fund except to the extent that a unitrust election is in effect with respect to such trust under the provisions of section 469.411.
(3) No right to transfer jurisdiction from Missouri under section 456.1-108 shall exist for endowed care trusts.
(4) All endowed care trusts shall be irrevocable.
(5) No trustee shall have the power to terminate an endowed care trust fund under the provisions of section 456.4-414.
(6) A unitrust election made in accordance with the provisions of chapter 469 shall be made by the cemetery operator in the terms of the endowed care trust fund agreement itself, not by the trustee.
(7) No contract of insurance shall be deemed a suitable investment for an endowed care trust fund.
(8) The income from the endowed care fund may be distributed to the cemetery operator at least annually on a date designated by the cemetery operator, but no later than sixty days following the end of the trust fund year. Any income not distributed within sixty days following the end of the trust's fiscal year shall be added to and held as part of the principal of the trust fund.
3. The cemetery operator shall have the duty and responsibility to apply the income distributed to provide care and maintenance only for that part of the cemetery designated as an endowed care section and not for any other purpose.
4. In addition to any other duty, obligation, or requirement imposed by sections 214.270 to 214.410 or the endowed care trust agreement, the trustee's duties shall be the maintenance of records related to the trust and the accounting for and investment of moneys deposited by the operator to the endowed care trust fund.
(1) For the purposes of sections 214.270 to 214.410, the trustee shall not be deemed responsible for the care, the maintenance, or the operation of the cemetery, or for any other matter relating to the cemetery, or the proper expenditure of funds distributed by the trustee to the cemetery operator, including, but not limited to, compliance with environmental laws and regulations.
(2) With respect to cemetery property maintained by endowed care funds, the cemetery operator shall be responsible for the performance of the care and maintenance of the cemetery property.
5. If the endowed care cemetery fund is not permanently set aside in a trust fund as required by subsection 1 of this section, then the funds shall be permanently set aside in an escrow account in the state of Missouri. Funds in an escrow account shall be placed in an endowed care trust fund under subsection 1 if the funds in the escrow account exceed three hundred fifty thousand dollars, unless otherwise approved by the division for good cause. The account shall be insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or comparable deposit insurance and held in a state or federally chartered financial institution authorized to do business in Missouri and located in this state.
(1) The interest from the escrow account may be distributed to the cemetery operator at least in annual or semiannual installments, but not later than six months following the calendar year. Any interest not distributed within six months following the end of the calendar year shall be added to and held as part of the principal of the account.
(2) The cemetery operator shall have the duty and responsibility to apply the interest to provide care and maintenance only for that part of the cemetery in which burial space shall have been sold and with respect to which sales the escrow account shall have been established and not for any other purpose. The principal of such funds shall be kept intact. The cemetery operator's duties shall be the maintenance of records and the accounting for an investment of moneys deposited by the operator to the escrow account. For purposes of sections 214.270 to 214.410, the administrator of the office of endowed care cemeteries shall not be deemed to be responsible for the care, maintenance, or operation of the cemetery. With respect to cemetery property maintained by cemetery care funds, the cemetery operator shall be responsible for the performance of the care and maintenance of the cemetery property owned by the cemetery operator.
(3) The division may approve an escrow agent if the escrow agent demonstrates the knowledge, skill, and ability to handle escrow funds and financial transactions and is of good moral character.
6. The cemetery operator shall be accountable to the owners of burial space in the cemetery for compliance with sections 214.270 to 214.410.
7. Excluding funds held in an escrow account, all endowed care trust funds shall be administered in accordance with an endowed care trust fund agreement, which shall be submitted to the office by the cemetery operator for review and approval. The endowed care cemetery shall be notified in writing by the office of endowed care cemeteries regarding the approval or disapproval of the endowed care trust fund agreement and regarding any changes required to be made for compliance with sections 214.270 to 214.410 and the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder.
8. All endowed care cemeteries shall be under a continuing duty to file with the office of endowed care cemeteries and to submit for prior approval any and all changes, amendments, or revisions of the endowed care trust fund agreement, at least thirty days before the effective date of such change, amendment, or revision.
9. If the endowed care trust fund agreement, or any changes, amendments, or revisions filed with the office, are not disapproved by the office within thirty days after submission by the cemetery operator, the endowed care trust fund agreement, or the related change, amendment, or revision, shall be deemed approved and may be used by the cemetery operator and the trustee. Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the office may review and disapprove an endowed care trust fund agreement, or any submitted change, amendment, or revision, after the thirty days provided herein or at any other time if the agreement is not in compliance with sections 214.270 to 214.410 or the rules promulgated thereunder. Notice of disapproval by the office shall be in writing and delivered to the cemetery operator and the trustee within ten days of disapproval.
10. Funds in an endowed care trust fund or escrow account may be commingled with endowed care funds for other endowed care cemeteries, provided that the cemetery operator and the trustee shall maintain adequate accounting records of the disbursements, contributions, and income allocated for each cemetery.
11. By accepting the trusteeship of an endowed care trust or accepting funds as an escrow agent pursuant to sections 214.270 to 214.410, the trustee or escrow agent submits personally to the jurisdiction of the courts of this state and the office of endowed care cemeteries regarding the administration of the trust or escrow account. A trustee or escrow agent shall consent in writing to the jurisdiction of the state of Missouri and the office in regards to the trusteeship or the operation of the escrow account and to the appointment of the office of secretary of state as its agent for service of process regarding any administrative or legal actions relating to the trust or the escrow account, if it has no designated agent for service of process located in this state. Such consent shall be filed with the office prior to accepting funds pursuant to sections 214.270 to 214.410 as trustee or as an escrow agent on a form provided by the office by rule.
214.335. 1. Any endowed care cemetery may require a contribution to the endowed care fund or to a separate memorial care fund for each memorial or monument installed on a grave in the cemetery. Such contribution, if required by a cemetery, shall not exceed twenty cents per square inch of base area, and shall be charged on every installation regardless of the person performing the installation. Each contribution made pursuant to a contract or agreement entered into after August 28, 1990, shall be entrusted and administered pursuant to sections 214.270 to 214.410 for the endowed care fund. Each contribution made pursuant to a contract or agreement entered into before August 28, 1990, shall be governed by the law in effect at the time the contract or agreement was entered into.
2. If the deposits to any endowed care trust fund are less than the total sum required to be set aside and deposited since the effective date of such sections, the cemetery operator shall correct such deficiency by depositing not less than twenty percent of such deficiency each year for five years and shall file, on the form provided by the division, a statement outlining the date and amount such deposits were made. If the cemetery operator fails to correct the deficiency with respect to funds maintained under section 214.330, the cemetery operator shall thereafter not represent the cemetery as an endowed care cemetery. Any funds held in the cemetery's endowed care trust shall continue to be used for endowed care for that cemetery. The cemetery operator shall remain subject to the provisions of sections 214.270 to 214.410 for any cemetery or any section of the cemetery for which endowed care payments have been collected, subject to the penalties contained in section 214.410, and civil actions, as well as subject to any regulations promulgated by the division. For purposes of this section, the term "deficiency" shall mean a deficiency in the amount required to be deposited pursuant to subsection 1 of this section, or a deficiency created by disbursements in excess of what is permitted under section 214.330 and shall not include or be affected by deficiencies or shortages caused by the fluctuating value of investments.
214.340. 1. Each operator of an endowed care cemetery shall maintain at an office in the cemetery or, if the cemetery has no office in the cemetery, at an office within a reasonable distance of the cemetery, the reports of the endowed care trust fund's operation for the preceding seven years. Each report shall contain, at least, the following information:
(1) Name and address of the trustee of the endowed care trust fund and the depository, if different from the trustee;
(2) Balance per previous year's report;
(3) Principal contributions received since previous report;
(4) Total earnings since previous report;
(5) Total distribution to the cemetery operator since the previous report;
(6) Current balance;
(7) A statement of all assets listing cash, real or personal property, stocks, bonds, and other assets, showing cost, acquisition date and current market value of each asset;
(8) Total expenses, excluding distributions to cemetery operator, since previous report; and
(9) A statement of the cemetery's total acreage and of its developed acreage.
2. Subdivisions (1) through (7) of the report described in subsection 1 above shall be certified to under oath as complete and correct by a corporate officer of the trustee. Subdivision (8) of such report shall be certified under oath as complete and correct by an officer of the cemetery operator. Both the trustee and cemetery operator or officer shall be subject to the penalty of making a false affidavit or declaration.
3. The report shall be placed in the cemetery's office within ninety days of the close of the trust's fiscal year. A copy of this report shall be filed by the cemetery operator with the division of professional registration as condition of license renewal as required by subsection 4 of section 214.275. [The report shall not be sent to the state board of embalmers and funeral directors.]
4. Each cemetery operator who establishes [a segregated] an escrow or trust account pursuant to [subsection 1 of section 214.385] section 214.387 shall file with the report required under subsection 1 of this section [a segregated] an escrow or trust account report that shall provide the following information:
(1) The [number of monuments, markers and memorials] total face value of all contracts for burial merchandise and services that have been deferred for delivery by purchase designation; and
(2) [The aggregate wholesale cost of all such monuments, markers and memorials; and
(3)] The amount on deposit in the [segregated] escrow or trust account established pursuant to section [214.385] 214.387, and the account number in the case of an escrow account.
214.345. 1. Any cemetery operator who negotiates the sale of burial space in any cemetery located in this state shall provide each prospective owner of burial space a written statement, which may be a separate form or a part of the sales contract, which states and explains in plain language that the burial space is part of an endowed care cemetery; that the cemetery has established and maintains the endowed care trust fund required by law; and that the information regarding the fund described in section 214.340 is available to the prospective purchaser. If the burial space is in a nonendowed cemetery, or in a nonendowed section of an endowed care cemetery, the cemetery operator shall state he has elected not to establish an endowed care trust fund.
2. The operator of each endowed care cemetery shall, upon request, give to the public for retention a copy of the endowed care trust fund annual report prepared pursuant to the provisions of subsection 1 of section 214.340.
214.360. No cemetery operator, nor any director, officer or shareholder of any cemetery may borrow or in any other way make use of the endowed care trust funds for his own use, directly or indirectly, or for furthering or developing his or any other cemetery, nor may any trustee lend or make such funds available for said purpose or for the use of any operator or any director, officer or shareholder of any cemetery.
214.363. In the event of a cemetery's bankruptcy, insolvency, or assignment for the benefit of creditors, the endowed care trust funds shall not be available to any creditor as assets of the cemetery's owner or to pay any expenses of any bankruptcy or similar proceeding, but shall be retained intact to provide for the future maintenance of the cemetery.
214.365. Prior to any action as provided in subsection 2 of section 214.205, and when the division has information that a [public] cemetery is not providing maintenance and care, has been abandoned, or has ceased operation, the division may investigate the cemetery to determine the cemetery's current status. If the division finds evidence that the cemetery is abandoned, is not conducting business, or is not providing maintenance and care, the division may apply to the circuit court for appointment as receiver, trustee, or successor in trust.
214.367. 1. Prior to selling or otherwise disposing of a majority of the business assets of a cemetery, or a majority of its stock or other ownership interest, if a corporation or other organized business entity, the cemetery operator shall provide written notification to the division of its intent at least thirty days prior to the date set for the transfer, or the closing of the sale, or the date set for termination of its business. Such notice is confidential and shall not be considered a public record subject to the provisions of chapter 610 until the sale of the cemetery has been effectuated. Upon receipt of the written notification, the division may take reasonable and necessary action to determine that the cemetery operator has made proper plans to assure that trust funds or funds held in an escrow account for or on behalf of the cemetery will be set aside and used as provided in sections 214.270 to 214.410, including, but not limited to, an audit or examination of books and records. The division may waive the requirements of this subsection or may shorten the period of notification for good cause or if the division determines in its discretion that compliance with its provisions are not necessary.
2. A cemetery operator may complete the sale, transfer, or cessation if the division does not disapprove the transaction within thirty days after receiving notice. Nothing in this section shall be construed to restrict any other right or remedy vested in the division or the attorney general.
3. A prospective purchaser or transferee of [any endowed care] endowed or unendowed cemetery, with the written consent of the cemetery operator, may obtain a copy of the cemetery's most recent audit or inspection report from the division. The division shall inform the prospective purchaser or transferee, within thirty days, whether the cemetery may continue to operate and be represented as [an endowed care] a cemetery.
214.387. 1. [Upon written instructions from the purchaser of burial merchandise or burial services set forth in a cemetery prearranged contract, a cemetery may defer delivery of such burial merchandise or a warehouse receipt for the same under section 214.385, or performance of services, to a date designated by the purchaser, provided the cemetery operator, after deducting sales and administrative costs not to exceed twenty percent of the purchase price, deposits the remaining portion of the purchase price into an escrow or trust account as herein provided, within sixty days following receipt of payment from the purchaser. Funds so deposited pursuant to this section shall be maintained in such account until delivery of the property or the performance of services is made or the contract for the purchase of such property or services is canceled. The account is subject to inspection, examination or audit by the division. No withdrawals may be made from the escrow or trust account established pursuant to this section except as herein provided.
2. Upon written instructions from the purchaser of an interment, entombment, or inurnment cemetery service, a cemetery may defer performance of such service to a date designated by the purchaser, provided the cemetery operator, within forty-five days of the date the agreement is paid in full, deposits from its own funds an amount equal to eighty percent of the published retail price into a trusteed account. Funds deposited in a trusteed account pursuant to this section and section 214.385 shall be maintained in such account until delivery of the service is made or the agreement for the purchase of the service is canceled. No withdrawals may be made from the trusteed account established pursuant to this section and section 214.385 except as provided herein. Money in this account shall be invested utilizing the prudent man theory and is subject to audit by the division. Names and addresses of depositories of such money shall be submitted with the annual report.
3. Upon the delivery of the interment, entombment, or inurnment cemetery service agreed upon by the cemetery or its agent, or the cancellation of the agreement for the purchase of such service, the cemetery operator may withdraw from the trusteed account an amount equal to (i) the market value of the trusteed account based on the most recent account statement issued to the cemetery operator, times (ii) the ratio the service's deposit in the account bears to the aggregate deposit of all services which are paid in full but not delivered. The trusteed account may be inspected or audited by the division.
4. The provisions of this section shall apply to all agreements entered into after August 28, 2002.] With the exception of sales made pursuant to section 214.385, all sales of prearranged burial merchandise and services shall be made pursuant to this section.
2. Upon written instructions from the purchaser of burial merchandise or burial services set forth in a cemetery prearranged contract, a cemetery may defer delivery of such burial merchandise or a warehouse receipt for the same under section 214.385, or performance of services, to a date designated by the purchaser, provided the cemetery operator, after deducting sales and administrative costs associated with the sale, not to exceed twenty percent of the purchase price, deposits the remaining portion of the purchase price into an escrow or trust account as herein provided, within sixty days following receipt of payment from the purchaser. Funds so deposited pursuant to this section shall be maintained in such account until delivery of the property or the performance of services is made or the contract for the purchase of such property or services is cancelled, and fees and costs associated with the maintenance of the trust or escrow arrangement shall be charged to these funds. The account is subject to inspection, examination or audit by the division. No withdrawals may be made from the escrow or trust account established pursuant to this section except as herein provided.
3. Each escrow arrangement must comply with the following:
(1) The escrow agent shall be located in Missouri, authorized to exercise escrow powers, and shall maintain the escrow records so that they may be accessed and produced for inspection within five business days of the agent's receipt of a written request made by the office or its duly authorized representative. A cemetery operator shall not serve as an escrow agent for the cemetery operator's account nor shall the escrow agent be employed by or under common ownership with the cemetery operator. The cemetery operator shall maintain a current name and address for the escrow agent with the office, and shall obtain written approval from the office before making any change in the name or address of the escrow agent. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, information regarding the escrow agent shall be deemed an open record;
(2) The escrow account funds shall be maintained in depository accounts at a Missouri financial institution that provides Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or comparable deposit insurance;
(3) The escrow arrangement shall be administered by the escrow agent pursuant to an agreement approved by the office under the same filing and approval procedure as that set forth for endowed care trust fund agreements in section 214.330;
(4) The operator shall establish a separate depository account for each cemetery prearranged contract administered pursuant to this subsection;
(5) The division may promulgate by rule a form escrow agreement to be used by a cemetery operator operating pursuant to this section.
4. Each trust must comply with the following:
(1) The trustee shall be a state or federally chartered financial institution authorized to exercise trust powers in Missouri, provided that a foreign financial institution must be approved by the office;
(2) The trust fund records, including all trust fund accounting records, shall either be maintained in the state of Missouri or shall be electronically stored so that the records may be made available within fifteen business days of the trustee's receipt of a written request made by the office or its duly authorized representative. The cemetery operator shall maintain a current name and address of the trustee and the records custodian and shall supply such information to the office or its representative upon request;
(3) The principal of such funds shall be appropriately invested pursuant to the prudent investor rule under chapter 469, provided that no trust funds shall be invested in any term insurance product;
(4) Payments regarding two or more cemetery prearranged contracts may be deposited into and commingled in the same trust, so long as adequate records are made available to the trustee to account for cemetery prearranged contracts on an individual basis with regard to deposits, earnings, distributions, and any taxes;
(5) Trust instruments shall be subject to the same filing and approval procedure as that set forth for endowed care trust fund agreements under section 214.330;
(6) A trustee may commingle the funds from trusts of unrelated cemetery operators for investment purposes if the trustee has adequate accounting for the allocations, disbursements, payments, and income among the participating trusts.
5. The income from escrow accounts, after payment of expenses associated with the arrangement, shall be distributed to the cemetery operator. All other distributions from trusts and escrow accounts shall be made pursuant to forms approved by the office. For performance of a cemetery prearranged contract, a certificate of performance form signed by the cemetery operator shall be required for distribution. For cancellation of a cemetery prearranged contract, a certificate of cancellation form signed by the cemetery operator and the purchaser shall be required for distribution.
6. A cemetery prearranged contract is subject to cancellation as follows:
(1) At any time before the final disposition of the deceased, or before the services or merchandise described in this section are provided, the purchaser may cancel the contract without cause by delivering written notice thereof to the operator. Within fifteen days after its receipt of such notice, the cemetery operator shall pay to the purchaser a net amount equal to eighty percent of all payments made under the contract. The cemetery operator shall be entitled to keep one-half of the interest earned on trust funds. Upon delivery of the purchaser's receipt for such payment to the escrow agent or trustee, the escrow agent or trustee shall distribute to the cemetery operator from the escrow account or trust an amount equal to all deposits made into the escrow account or trust for the contract;
(2) Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision (1) of this subsection, if a purchaser is eligible, becomes eligible, or desires to become eligible, to receive public assistance under chapter 208 or any other applicable state or federal law, the purchaser may irrevocably waive and renounce his right to cancel the contract pursuant to the provisions of subdivision (1) of this section, which waiver and renunciation shall be made in writing and delivered to the cemetery operator;
(3) Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision (1) of this subsection, any purchaser, within thirty days of receipt of the executed contract, may cancel the contract without cause by delivering written notice thereof to the cemetery operator, and receive a full refund of all payments made on the contract;
(4) Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision (1) of this subsection, once any purchase order is entered for the production or manufacture of burial merchandise, per the purchaser's written request, the purchaser's obligation to pay for said burial merchandise shall be noncancellable;
(5) No funds subject to a purchaser's right of cancellation hereunder shall be subject to the claims of the cemetery operator's creditors.
7. Burial merchandise sold through a contract with a cemetery or cemetery operator which is entered into after the death of the individual for whom the burial merchandise is intended shall not be subject to any trusting or escrow requirement of this section.
8. This section shall apply to all agreements entered into after August 28, 2010.
214.389. 1. The division may direct a trustee, financial institution, or escrow agent to suspend distribution from an endowed care trust fund or escrow account if the cemetery operator does not have a current and active cemetery operator license, has failed to file an annual report, or if, after an audit or examination, the division determines there is a deficiency in an endowed care trust fund or escrow account maintained under section 214.330 and the cemetery operator has failed to file a corrective action plan detailing how the deficiency shall be remedied. For purposes of this section, a deficiency shall only be deemed to exist if, after an audit or examination, the division determines a cemetery operator has failed to deposit the total aggregate of funds required to be deposited in trust or an escrow account pursuant to section 214.320 or subsection 1 of section 214.335, or has received disbursements from the trust or escrow account in excess of what is permitted under section 214.330. No deficiency shall be deemed to be created by fluctuations in the value of investments held in trust or escrow.
2. The division shall provide written notification to the cemetery operator and the trustee, financial institution, or escrow agent within fourteen days of discovering a potential violation as described in this section. Upon receipt of written notification from the division, the cemetery operator shall have sixty days to cure any alleged violations or deficiencies cited in the notification without a suspension of distribution. If, after the sixty-day time period, the division feels the cemetery has not cured the alleged violations or deficiencies cited in the notification, the division may send a notice of suspension to the cemetery operator that the division is ordering a suspension of distribution as described in this section. In the event of a suspension of distribution, the amount of any distribution suspended shall become principal, with credit against the deficiency, unless the cemetery operator files an appeal with a court of competent jurisdiction or with the administrative hearing commission, as provided herein. In the event of an appeal, a cemetery operator may request the court or administrative hearing commission stay the suspension of distribution after a showing of necessity and good cause or authorize payment from the endowed care trust fund or escrow account for necessary expenses from any amount subject to distribution.
3. Upon receipt of an order from the division suspending distribution pursuant to this section, a trustee, financial institution, or escrow agent shall immediately suspend distribution as required by the order. A trustee, financial institution, or escrow agent shall be exempt from liability for failure to distribute funds as ordered by the division.
4. A cemetery operator may appeal an order suspending distribution pursuant to this section to the administrative hearing commission. The administrative hearing commission shall receive notice of such appeal within thirty days from the date the notice of suspension was mailed by certified mail. Failure of a person whose license was suspended to notify the administrative hearing commission of his or her intent to appeal waives all rights to appeal the suspension. Upon notice of such person's intent to appeal, a hearing shall be held before the administrative hearing commission pursuant to chapter 621.
5. A cemetery operator may apply for reinstatement of distributions upon demonstration that the deficiencies or other problems have been cured or that the operator has otherwise come into compliance.
6. The division may promulgate rules to implement the provisions of this section. Any rule or portion of a rule, as that term is defined in section 536.010, that is created under the authority delegated in this section shall become effective only if it complies with and is subject to all of the provisions of chapter 536, and, if applicable, section 536.028. This section and chapter 536 are nonseverable and if any of the powers vested with the general assembly pursuant to chapter 536, to review, to delay the effective date, or to disapprove and annul a rule are subsequently held unconstitutional, then the grant of rulemaking authority and any rule proposed or adopted after August 28, 2010, shall be invalid and void.
214.392. 1. The division shall:
(1) Recommend prosecution for violations of the provisions of sections 214.270 to 214.410 to the appropriate prosecuting, circuit attorney or to the attorney general;
(2) Employ, within limits of the funds appropriated, such employees as are necessary to carry out the provisions of sections 214.270 to 214.410;
(3) Be allowed to convey full authority to each city or county governing body the use of inmates controlled by the department of corrections and the board of probation and parole to care for abandoned cemeteries located within the boundaries of each city or county;
(4) Exercise all budgeting, purchasing, reporting and other related management functions;
(5) Be authorized, within the limits of the funds appropriated to conduct investigations, examinations, or audits to determine compliance with sections 214.270 to 214.410;
(6) The division may promulgate rules necessary to implement the provisions of sections 214.270 to 214.516, including but not limited to:
(a) Rules setting the amount of fees authorized pursuant to sections 214.270 to 214.516. The fees shall be set at a level to produce revenue that shall not substantially exceed the cost and expense of administering sections 214.270 to 214.516. All moneys received by the division pursuant to sections 214.270 to 214.516 shall be collected by the director who shall transmit such moneys to the department of revenue for deposit in the state treasury to the credit of the endowed care cemetery audit fund created in section 193.265, RSMo;
(b) Rules to administer the inspection and audit provisions of the endowed care cemetery law;
(c) Rules for the establishment and maintenance of the cemetery registry pursuant to section 214.283.
2. Any rule or portion of a rule, as that term is defined in section 536.010, RSMo, that is created under the authority delegated in this section shall become effective only if it complies with and is subject to all of the provisions of chapter 536, RSMo, and, if applicable, section 536.028, RSMo. This section and chapter 536, RSMo, are nonseverable and if any of the powers vested with the general assembly pursuant to chapter 536, RSMo, to review, to delay the effective date or to disapprove and annul a rule are subsequently held unconstitutional, then the grant of rulemaking authority and any rule proposed or adopted after August 28, 2001, shall be invalid and void.
214.400. Sections 214.270 to 214.410 shall be known as the "Cemetery Endowed Care Trust Fund Law".
214.410. 1. Any cemetery operator who shall willfully violate any provisions of sections 214.270 to 214.410 for which no penalty is otherwise prescribed shall be deemed guilty of a misdemeanor and upon conviction thereof shall be fined a sum not to exceed five hundred dollars or shall be confined not more than six months or both.
2. Any cemetery operator who shall willfully violate any provision of [section] sections 214.320, 214.330, 214.335, 214.340, 214.360 [or] , 214.385, or 214.387 shall be deemed guilty of a class D felony and upon conviction thereof shall be fined a sum not to exceed ten thousand dollars or shall be confined not more than five years or both. This section shall not apply to cemeteries or cemetery associations which do not sell lots in the cemetery.
3. Any trustee who shall willfully violate any applicable provisions of sections 214.270 to 214.410 shall have committed an unsafe and unsound banking practice and shall be penalized as authorized by chapters 361 and 362, RSMo. This subsection shall be enforced exclusively by the Missouri division of finance for state chartered institutions and the Missouri attorney general for federally chartered institutions.
4. Any person who shall willfully violate any provision of section 214.320, 214.330, 214.335, 214.340, 214.360 or 214.385 or violates any rule, regulation or order of the division may, in accordance with the regulations issued by the division, be assessed an administrative penalty by the division. The penalty shall not exceed five thousand dollars for each violation and each day of the continuing violation shall be deemed a separate violation for purposes of administrative penalty assessment. However, no administrative penalty may be assessed until the person charged with the violation has been given the opportunity for a hearing on the violation. Penalty assessments received shall be deposited in the endowed care cemetery audit fund created in section 193.265, RSMo.
214.500. Any cemetery located in a city [not within a county,] which has become the property of such city pursuant to section 214.205 or a public tax sale may be sold to another cemetery operator or a not-for-profit corporation which is unrelated to the previous cemetery operator.
214.504. Any cemetery operator who purchases a cemetery from a city [not within a county] pursuant to sections 214.500 to 214.516 shall not be liable for any wrongful interments or errors made in the sale of plots prior to the cemetery operator's purchase of the cemetery, nor shall such cemetery operator be liable for multiple ownership of plots sold by such cemetery operator due to a lack of adequate records in such cemetery operator's possession at the time of such cemetery operator's purchase of such cemetery from the city, provided the cemetery operator offers a plot of equal value for the interment, if such party can prove ownership of the right to bury a person by presenting a contract for the right to burial.
214.508. Any cemetery operator who purchases a cemetery from a city [not within a county] shall not be held liable or responsible for any conditions existing or actions taken which occurred prior to the cemetery operator's purchase from such city; except that, the exemption provided in this section shall not relieve any previous owner or wrongdoer for their actions related to such cemetery.
214.512. Any subsequent cemetery owner after a city [not within a county] shall be exempt from the provisions of section 214.325 and section 214.410 for any deficiency existing prior to such city's ownership; except that, such exemption shall not relieve any previous cemetery owners or wrongdoers from the provisions of such sections.
214.516. Any cemetery owner subsequent to a city [not within a county], regardless of whether such cemetery was previously registered as an endowed care cemetery, held itself out to be an endowed care cemetery or was a nonendowed care cemetery, shall comply with section 214.310 and register such cemetery as an endowed care cemetery as if it were a newly created cemetery with no interments at the time of such registration. Any contracts for the right of burial sold after compliance with section 214.310 and all subsequent action of a subsequent cemetery owner shall comply fully with the provisions of sections 214.270 to 214.410.
214.550. 1. For purposes of this section, the following terms mean:
(1) "Cremains", the [ashes that remain after cremation of a human corpse] remains of a human corpse after cremation;
(2) "Operator", a church that owns and maintains a religious cemetery;
(3) "Religious cemetery", a cemetery owned, operated, controlled, or managed by any church that has or would qualify for federal tax-exempt status as a nonprofit religious organization pursuant to section 501(c) of the Internal Revenue Code as amended;
(4) "Scatter garden", a location for the spreading of cremains set aside within a cemetery.
2. It shall be lawful for any operator of a religious cemetery adjacent to a church building or other building regularly used as a place of worship to establish a scatter garden for the purpose of scattering human cremains.
3. The operator of any religious cemetery containing a scatter garden shall maintain, protect, and supervise the scatter garden, and shall be responsible for all costs incurred for such maintenance, protection, and supervision. Such operator shall also maintain a record of all cremains scattered in the scatter garden that shall include the name, date of death, and Social Security number of each person whose cremains are scattered, and the date the cremains were scattered.
4. A scatter garden established pursuant to this section shall be maintained by the operator of the religious cemetery for as long as such operator is in existence. Upon dissolution of such operator, all records of cremains shall be transferred to the clerk of the city, town, or village in which the scatter garden is located, or if the scatter garden is located in any unincorporated area, to the county recorder.
246.310. The provisions of section 262.802 shall not apply to any drainage district or levee district formed under the laws of this state.
288.034. 1. "Employment" means service, including service in interstate commerce, performed for wages or under any contract of hire, written or oral, express or implied, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this section, service with respect to which a tax is required to be paid under any federal unemployment tax law imposing a tax against which credit may be taken for contributions required to be paid into a state unemployment fund or which, as a condition for full tax credit against the tax imposed by the Federal Unemployment Tax Act, is required to be covered under this law.
2. The term "employment" shall include an individual's entire service, performed within or both within and without this state if:
(1) The service is localized in this state; or
(2) The service is not localized in any state but some of the service is performed in this state and the base of operations, or, if there is no base of operations, then the place from which such service is directed or controlled, is in this state; or the base of operations or place from which such service is directed or controlled is not in any state in which some part of the service is performed but the individual's residence is in this state.
3. Service performed by an individual for wages shall be deemed to be employment subject to this law:
(1) If covered by an election filed and approved pursuant to subdivision (2) of subsection 3 of section 288.080;
(2) If covered by an arrangement pursuant to section 288.340 between the division and the agency charged with the administration of any other state or federal unemployment insurance law, pursuant to which all services performed by an individual for an employing unit are deemed to be performed entirely within this state.
4. Service shall be deemed to be localized within a state if the service is performed entirely within such state; or the service is performed both within and without such state, but the service performed without such state is incidental to the individual's service within the state; for example, is temporary or transitory in nature or consists of isolated transactions.
5. Service performed by an individual for remuneration shall be deemed to be employment subject to this law unless it is shown to the satisfaction of the division that such services were performed by an independent contractor. In determining the existence of the independent contractor relationship, the common law of agency right to control shall be applied. The common law of agency right to control test shall include but not be limited to: if the alleged employer retains the right to control the manner and means by which the results are to be accomplished, the individual who performs the service is an employee. If only the results are controlled, the individual performing the service is an independent contractor.
6. The term "employment" shall include service performed for wages as an agent-driver or commission-driver engaged in distributing meat products, vegetable products, fruit products, bakery products, beverages (other than milk), or laundry or dry-cleaning services, for his or her principal; or as a traveling or city salesman, other than as an agent-driver or commission-driver, engaged upon a full-time basis in the solicitation on behalf of, and the transmission to, his or her principal (except for sideline sales activities on behalf of some other person) of orders from wholesalers, retailers, contractors, or operators of hotels, restaurants, or other similar establishments for merchandise for resale or supplies for use in their business operations, provided:
(1) The contract of service contemplates that substantially all of the services are to be performed personally by such individual; and
(2) The individual does not have a substantial investment in facilities used in connection with the performance of the services (other than in facilities for transportation); and
(3) The services are not in the nature of a single transaction that is not part of a continuing relationship with the person for whom the services are performed.
7. Service performed by an individual in the employ of this state or any political subdivision thereof or any instrumentality of any one or more of the foregoing which is wholly owned by this state and one or more other states or political subdivisions, or any service performed in the employ of any instrumentality of this state or of any political subdivision thereof, and one or more other states or political subdivisions, provided that such service is excluded from "employment" as defined in the Federal Unemployment Tax Act by Section 3306(c)(7) of that act and is not excluded from "employment" pursuant to subsection 9 of this section, shall be "employment" subject to this law.
8. Service performed by an individual in the employ of a corporation or any community chest, fund, or foundation organized and operated exclusively for religious, charitable, scientific, testing for public safety, literary, or educational purposes, or for the prevention of cruelty to children or animals, no part of the net earnings of which inures to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual, or other organization described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code which is exempt from income tax under Section 501(a) of that code if the organization had four or more individuals in employment for some portion of a day in each of twenty different weeks whether or not such weeks were consecutive within a calendar year regardless of whether they were employed at the same moment of time shall be "employment" subject to this law.
9. For the purposes of subsections 7 and 8 of this section, the term "employment" does not apply to service performed:
(1) In the employ of a church or convention or association of churches, or an organization which is operated primarily for religious purposes and which is operated, supervised, controlled, or principally supported by a church or convention or association of churches; or
(2) By a duly ordained, commissioned, or licensed minister of a church in the exercise of such minister's ministry or by a member of a religious order in the exercise of duties required by such order; or
(3) In the employ of a governmental entity referred to in subdivision (3) of subsection 1 of section 288.032 if such service is performed by an individual in the exercise of duties:
(a) As an elected official;
(b) As a member of a legislative body, or a member of the judiciary, of a state or political subdivision;
(c) As a member of the state national guard or air national guard;
(d) As an employee serving on a temporary basis in case of fire, storm, snow, earthquake, flood or similar emergency;
(e) In a position which, under or pursuant to the laws of this state, is designated as (i) a major nontenured policy-making or advisory position, or (ii) a policy-making or advisory position the performance of the duties of which ordinarily does not require more than eight hours per week; or
(4) In a facility conducted for the purpose of carrying out a program of rehabilitation for individuals whose earning capacity is impaired by age or physical or mental deficiency or injury or providing remunerative work for individuals who because of their impaired physical or mental capacity cannot be readily absorbed in the competitive labor market, by an individual receiving such rehabilitation or remunerative work; or
(5) As part of an unemployment work-relief or work-training program assisted or financed in whole or in part by any federal agency or an agency of a state or political subdivision thereof, by an individual receiving such work relief or work training; or
(6) By an inmate of a custodial or penal institution; or
(7) In the employ of a school, college, or university, if such service is performed (i) by a student who is enrolled and is regularly attending classes at such school, college, or university, or (ii) by the spouse of such a student, if such spouse is advised, at the time such spouse commences to perform such service, that (I) the employment of such spouse to perform such service is provided under a program to provide financial assistance to such student by such school, college, or university, and (II) such employment will not be covered by any program of unemployment insurance.
10. The term "employment" shall include the service of an individual who is a citizen of the United States, performed outside the United States (except in Canada), if:
(1) The employer's principal place of business in the United States is located in this state; or
(2) The employer has no place of business in the United States, but:
(a) The employer is an individual who is a resident of this state; or
(b) The employer is a corporation which is organized under the laws of this state; or
(c) The employer is a partnership or a trust and the number of the partners or trustees who are residents of this state is greater than the number who are residents of any one other state; or
(3) None of the criteria of subdivisions (1) and (2) of this subsection is met but the employer has elected coverage in this state or, the employer having failed to elect coverage in any state, the individual has filed a claim for benefits, based on such service, under the law of this state;
(4) As used in this subsection and in subsection 11 of this section, the term "United States" includes the states, the District of Columbia and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.
11. An "American employer", for the purposes of subsection 10 of this section, means a person who is:
(1) An individual who is a resident of the United States; or
(2) A partnership, if two-thirds or more of the partners are residents of the United States; or
(3) A trust, if all of the trustees are residents of the United States; or
(4) A corporation organized under the laws of the United States or of any state.
12. The term "employment" shall not include:
(1) Service performed by an individual in agricultural labor;
(a) For the purposes of this subdivision, the term "agricultural labor" means remunerated service performed:
a. On a farm, in the employ of any person, in connection with cultivating the soil, or in connection with raising or harvesting any agricultural or horticultural commodity, including the raising, shearing, feeding, caring for, training, and management of livestock, bees, poultry, and furbearing animals and wildlife;
b. In the employ of the owner or tenant or other operator of a farm, in connection with the operation, management, conservation, improvement, or maintenance of such farm and its tools and equipment, or in salvaging timber or clearing land of brush and other debris left by a hurricane, if the major part of such service is performed on a farm;
c. In connection with the production or harvesting of any commodity defined as an agricultural commodity in Section 15(g) of the Federal Agricultural Marketing Act, as amended (46 Stat. 1550, Sec. 3; 12 U.S.C. 1441j), or in connection with the ginning of cotton, or in connection with the operation or maintenance of ditches, canals, reservoirs, or waterways, not owned or operated for profit, used exclusively for supplying and storing water for farming purposes;
d. i. In the employ of the operator of a farm in handling, planting, drying, packing, packaging, processing, freezing, grading, storing, or delivering to storage or to market or to a carrier for transportation to market, in its unmanufactured state, any agricultural or horticultural commodity; but only if such operator produced more than one-half of the commodity with respect to which such service is performed;
ii. In the employ of a group of operators of farms (or a cooperative organization of which such operators are members) in the performance of services described in item i of this subparagraph, but only if such operators produced more than one-half of the commodity with respect to which such service is performed;
iii. The provisions of items i and ii of this subparagraph shall not be deemed to be applicable with respect to service performed in connection with commercial canning or commercial freezing or in connection with any agricultural or horticultural commodity after its delivery to a terminal market for distribution for consumption; or
e. On a farm operated for profit if such service is not in the course of the employer's trade or business. As used in this paragraph, the term "farm" includes stock, dairy, poultry, fruit, furbearing animals, and truck farms, plantations, ranches, nurseries, ranges, greenhouses or other similar structures, used primarily for the raising of agricultural or horticultural commodities, and orchards;
(b) The term "employment" shall include service performed after December 31, 1977, by an individual in agricultural labor as defined in paragraph (a) of this subdivision when such service is performed for a person who, during any calendar quarter, paid remuneration in cash of twenty thousand dollars or more to individuals employed in agricultural labor or for some portion of a day in a calendar year in each of twenty different calendar weeks, whether or not such weeks were consecutive, employed in agricultural labor ten or more individuals, regardless of whether they were employed at the same moment of time;
(c) For the purposes of this subsection any individual who is a member of a crew furnished by a crew leader to perform service in agricultural labor for any other person shall be considered as employed by such crew leader:
a. If such crew leader holds a valid certificate of registration under the Farm Labor Contractor Registration Act of 1963; or substantially all the members of such crew operate or maintain tractors, mechanized harvesting or crop-dusting equipment, or any other mechanized equipment, which is provided by such crew leader; and
b. If such individual is not in employment by such other person;
c. If any individual is furnished by a crew leader to perform service in agricultural labor for any other person and that individual is not in the employment of the crew leader:
i. Such other person and not the crew leader shall be treated as the employer of such individual; and
ii. Such other person shall be treated as having paid cash remuneration to such individual in an amount equal to the amount of cash remuneration paid to such individual by the crew leader (either on his or her own behalf or on behalf of such other person) for the service in agricultural labor performed for such other person;
d. For the purposes of this subsection, the term "crew leader" means an individual who:
i. Furnishes individuals to perform service in agricultural labor for any other person;
ii. Pays (either on his or her own behalf or on behalf of such other person) the individuals so furnished by him or her for the service in agricultural labor performed by them; and
iii. Has not entered into a written agreement with such other person under which such individual is designated as in employment by such other person;
(2) Domestic service in a private home except as provided in subsection 13 of this section;
(3) Service performed by an individual under the age of eighteen years in the delivery or distribution of newspapers or shopping news but shall not include delivery or distribution to any point for subsequent delivery or distribution;
(4) Service performed by an individual in, and at the time of, the sale of newspapers or magazines to ultimate consumers under an arrangement under which the newspapers or magazines are to be sold by him or her at a fixed price, his or her compensation being based on the retention of the excess of such price over the amount at which the newspapers or magazines are charged to him or her, whether or not he or she is guaranteed a minimum amount of compensation for such service, or is entitled to be credited with the unsold newspapers or magazines turned back;
(5) Service performed by an individual in the employ of his or her son, daughter, or spouse, and service performed by a child under the age of twenty-one in the employ of his or her father or mother;
(6) Except as otherwise provided in this law, service performed in the employ of a corporation, community chest, fund or foundation, organized and operated exclusively for religious, charitable, scientific, literary, or educational purposes, or for the prevention of cruelty to children or animals, no part of the net earnings of which inures to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual;
(7) Services with respect to which unemployment insurance is payable under an unemployment insurance system established by an act of Congress;
(8) Service performed in the employ of a foreign government;
(9) Service performed in the employ of an instrumentality wholly owned by a foreign government:
(a) If the service is of a character similar to that performed in foreign countries by employees of the United States government or of an instrumentality thereof; and
(b) If the division finds that the foreign government, with respect to whose instrumentality exemption is claimed, grants an equivalent exemption with respect to similar service performed in the foreign country by employees of the United States government and of instrumentalities thereof. The certification of the United States Secretary of State to the United States Secretary of Treasury shall constitute prima facie evidence of such equivalent exemption;
(10) Service covered by an arrangement between the division and the agency charged with the administration of any other state or federal unemployment insurance law pursuant to which all services performed by an individual for an employing unit during the period covered by the employing unit's approved election are deemed to be performed entirely within the jurisdiction of such other state or federal agency;
(11) Service performed in any calendar quarter in the employ of a school, college or university not otherwise excluded, if such service is performed by a student who is enrolled and regularly attending classes at such school, college, or university, and the remuneration for such service does not exceed fifty dollars (exclusive of board, room, and tuition);
(12) Service performed by an individual for a person as a licensed insurance agent, a licensed insurance broker, or an insurance solicitor, if all such service performed by such individual for such person is performed for remuneration solely by way of commissions;
(13) Domestic service performed in the employ of a local college club or of a local chapter of a college fraternity or sorority, except as provided in subsection 13 of this section;
(14) Services performed after March 31, 1982, in programs authorized and funded by the Comprehensive Employment and Training Act by participants of such programs, except those programs with respect to which unemployment insurance coverage is required by the Comprehensive Employment and Training Act or regulations issued pursuant thereto;
(15) Service performed by an individual who is enrolled at a nonprofit or public educational institution which normally maintains a regular faculty and curriculum and normally has a regularly organized body of students in attendance at the place where its educational activities are carried on, as a student in a full-time program, taken for credit at such institution, which combines academic instruction with work experience, if such service is an integral part of such program, and such institution has so certified to the employer; except, that this subdivision shall not apply to service performed in a program established for or on behalf of an employer or group of employers;
(16) Services performed by a licensed real estate salesperson or licensed real estate broker if [at least eighty percent] substantially all of the remuneration, whether or not paid in cash, for the services performed, rather than to the number of hours worked, is directly related to sales or other output, including the performance of services, performed pursuant to a written contract between such individual and the person for whom the services are performed and such contract provides that the individual will not be treated as an employee with respect to such services for federal tax purposes;
(17) Services performed as a direct seller who is engaged in the trade or business of the delivering or distribution of newspapers or shopping news, including any services directly related to such trade or business, or services performed as a direct seller who is engaged in the trade or business of selling, or soliciting the sale of, consumer products in the home or otherwise than in, or affiliated with, a permanent, fixed retail establishment, if eighty percent or more of the remuneration, whether or not paid in cash, for the services performed rather than the number of hours worked is directly related to sales performed pursuant to a written contract between such direct seller and the person for whom the services are performed, and such contract provides that the individual will not be treated as an employee with respect to such services for federal tax purposes;
(18) Services performed as a volunteer research subject who is paid on a per study basis for scientific, medical or drug-related testing for any organization other than one described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code or any governmental entity.
13. The term "employment" shall include domestic service as defined in subdivisions (2) and (13) of subsection 12 of this section performed after December 31, 1977, if the employing unit for which such service is performed paid cash wages of one thousand dollars or more for such services in any calendar quarter after December 31, 1977.
14. The term "employment" shall include or exclude the entire service of an individual for an employing unit during a pay period in which such individual's services are not all excluded under the foregoing provisions, on the following basis: if the services performed during one-half or more of any pay period constitute employment as otherwise defined in this law, all the services performed during such period shall be deemed to be employment; but if the services performed during more than one-half of any such pay period do not constitute employment as otherwise defined in this law, then none of the services for such period shall be deemed to be employment. (As used in this subsection, the term "pay period" means a period of not more than thirty-one consecutive days for which a payment of remuneration is ordinarily made to the individual by the employing unit employing such individual.) This subsection shall not be applicable with respect to service performed in a pay period where any such service is excluded pursuant to subdivision (8) of subsection 12 of this section.
15. The term "employment" shall not include the services of a full-time student who performed such services in the employ of an organized summer camp for less than thirteen calendar weeks in such calendar year.
16. For the purpose of subsection 15 of this section, an individual shall be treated as a full-time student for any period:
(1) During which the individual is enrolled as a full-time student at an educational institution; or
(2) Which is between academic years or terms if:
(a) The individual was enrolled as a full-time student at an educational institution for the immediately preceding academic year or term; and
(b) There is a reasonable assurance that the individual will be so enrolled for the immediately succeeding academic year or term after the period described in paragraph (a) of this subdivision.
17. For the purpose of subsection 15 of this section, an "organized summer camp" shall mean a summer camp which:
(1) Did not operate for more than seven months in the calendar year and did not operate for more than seven months in the preceding calendar year; or
(2) Had average gross receipts for any six months in the preceding calendar year which were not more than thirty-three and one-third percent of its average gross receipts for the other six months in the preceding calendar year.
18. The term "employment" shall not mean service performed by a remodeling salesperson acting as an independent contractor; however, if the federal Internal Revenue Service determines that a contractual relationship between a direct provider and an individual acting as an independent contractor pursuant to the provisions of this subsection is in fact an employer-employee relationship for the purposes of federal law, then that relationship shall be considered as an employer-employee relationship for the purposes of this chapter.
306.532. Effective January 1, 2011, the certificate of title for a new outboard motor shall designate the year the outboard motor was manufactured as the "Year Manufactured" and shall further designate the year the dealer received the new outboard motor from the manufacturer as the "Model Year-NEW".
327.031. 1. The "Missouri Board for Architects, Professional Engineers, Professional Land Surveyors and Landscape Architects" is hereby established and shall consist of [fourteen] fifteen members: a chairperson, who may be either an architect, a professional engineer [or] , a professional land surveyor, or a landscape architect; three architects, who shall constitute the architectural division of the board; [three] four professional engineers, who shall constitute its professional engineering division; three professional land surveyors, who shall constitute its professional land surveying division; three landscape architects, who shall constitute its landscape [architecture] architectural division; and a voting public member.
2. After receiving his or her commission and before entering upon the discharge of his or her official duties, each member of the board shall take, subscribe to and file in the office of the secretary of state the official oath required by the constitution.
3. The chairperson shall be the administrative and executive officer of the board, and it shall be his or her duty to supervise and expedite the work of the board and its divisions, and, at his or her election, when a tie exists between the divisions of the board, to break the tie by recording his or her vote for or against the action upon which the divisions are in disagreement. Each member of the architectural division shall have one vote when voting on an action pending before the board; each member of the professional engineering division shall have one vote when voting on an action pending before the board; [the chairperson of the landscape architecture division or the chairperson's designee] each member of the professional land surveying division shall have one vote when voting on an action pending before the board; and each member of the landscape architectural division shall have one vote when voting on an action pending before the board[; and each member of the professional land surveying division shall have one vote when voting on an action pending before the board]. Every motion or proposed action upon which the divisions of the board are tied shall be deemed lost, and the chairperson shall so declare, unless the chairperson shall elect to break the tie as provided in this section. [Seven] Eight voting members of the board [and two members] , including at least one member of each division, shall constitute a quorum, respectively, for the transaction of board business.
4. Each division of the board shall, at its first meeting in each even-numbered year, elect one of its members as division chairperson for a term of two years. Two voting members of each division of the board shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of division business. The chairpersons of the architectural division, professional engineering division [and the] , professional land surveying division, and landscape architectural division so elected shall be vice chairpersons of the board, and when the chairperson of the board is an architect, the chairperson of the architectural division shall be the ranking vice chairperson, and when the chairperson of the board is a professional engineer, the chairperson of the professional engineering division shall be the ranking vice chairperson, [and] when the chairperson of the board is a professional land surveyor, the chairperson of the professional land surveying division shall be the ranking vice chairperson, and when the chairperson of the board is a landscape architect, the chairperson of the landscape architectural division shall be the ranking vice chairperson. The chairperson of each division shall be the administrative and executive officer of his or her division, and it shall be his or her duty to supervise and expedite the work of the division, and, in case of a tie vote on any matter, the chairperson shall, at his or her election, break the tie by his or her vote. Every motion or question pending before the division upon which a tie exists shall be deemed lost, and so declared by the chairperson of the division, unless the chairperson shall elect to break such tie by his or her vote.
5. Any person appointed to the board, except a public member, shall be a currently licensed architect, licensed professional engineer, licensed professional land surveyor or registered or licensed landscape architect in Missouri, as the vacancy on the board may require, who has been a resident of Missouri for at least five years, who has been engaged in active practice as an architect, professional engineer, professional land surveyor or landscape architect, as the case may be, for at least ten consecutive years immediately preceding such person's appointment and who is and has been a citizen of the United States for at least five years immediately preceding such person's appointment. Active service as a faculty member while holding the rank of assistant professor or higher in an accredited school of engineering shall be regarded as active practice of engineering, for the purposes of this chapter. Active service as a faculty member, after meeting the qualifications required by section 327.314, while holding the rank of assistant professor or higher in an accredited school of engineering and teaching land surveying courses shall be regarded [an] as active practice of land surveying for the purposes of this chapter. Active service as a faculty member while holding the rank of assistant professor or higher in an accredited school of landscape architecture shall be regarded as active practice of landscape architecture, for the purposes of this chapter. Active service as a faculty member while holding the rank of assistant professor or higher in an accredited school of architecture shall be regarded as active practice of architecture for the purposes of this chapter; provided, however, that no faculty member of an accredited school of architecture shall be eligible for appointment to the board unless such person has had at least three years' experience in the active practice of architecture other than in teaching. The public member shall be, at the time of appointment, a citizen of the United States; a resident of this state for a period of one year and a registered voter; a person who is not and never was a member of any profession licensed or regulated pursuant to this chapter or the spouse of such person; and a person who does not have and never has had a material, financial interest in either the providing of the professional services regulated by this chapter, or an activity or organization directly related to any profession licensed or regulated pursuant to this chapter. All members, including public members, shall be chosen from lists submitted by the director of the division of professional registration. The duties of the public member shall not include the determination of the technical requirements to be met for licensure or whether any person meets such technical requirements or of the technical competence or technical judgment of a licensee or a candidate for licensure.
6. The governor shall appoint the chairperson and the other members of the board when a vacancy occurs either by the expiration of a term or otherwise, and each board member shall serve until such member's successor is appointed and has qualified. Beginning August 28, 2010, the position of chairperson shall [alternate among an architect, a professional engineer and a professional land surveyor] rotate sequentially with an architect, then professional engineer, then professional land surveyor, then landscape architect, and shall be a licensee who has previously served as a member of the board. The appointment of the chairperson shall be for a term of four years which shall be deemed to have begun on the date of his or her appointment and shall end upon the appointment of the chairperson's successor. The chairperson shall not serve more than one term. All other appointments, except to fill an unexpired term, shall be for terms of four years; but no person shall serve on the board for more than two consecutive four-year terms, and each four-year term shall be deemed to have begun on the date of the expiration of the term of the board member who is being replaced or reappointed, as the case may be. Any appointment to the board which is made when the senate is not in session shall be submitted to the senate for its advice and consent at its next session following the date of the appointment.
7. In the event that a vacancy is to occur on the board because of the expiration of a term, then ninety days prior to the expiration, or as soon as feasible after a vacancy otherwise occurs, the president of the American Institute of Architects/Missouri if the vacancy to be filled requires the appointment of an architect, [the president of the Missouri Association of Landscape Architects if the vacancy to be filled requires the appointment of a landscape architect,] the president of the Missouri Society of Professional Engineers if the vacancy to be filled requires the appointment of an engineer, [and] the president of the Missouri Society of Professional Surveyors if the vacancy to be filled requires the appointment of a land surveyor, and the president of the Missouri Association of Landscape Architects if the vacancy to be filled requires the appointment of a landscape architect, shall submit to the director of the division of professional registration a list of five architects or five professional engineers, [five landscape architects] or five professional land surveyors, or five landscape architects as the case may require, qualified and willing to fill the vacancy in question, with the recommendation that the governor appoint one of the five persons so listed; and with the list of names so submitted, the president of the appropriate organization shall include in a letter of transmittal a description of the method by which the names were chosen. This subsection shall not apply to public member vacancies.
8. The board may sue and be sued as the Missouri board for architects, professional engineers, professional land surveyors and landscape architects, and its members need not be named as parties. Members of the board shall not be personally liable either jointly or severally for any act or acts committed in the performance of their official duties as board members, nor shall any board member be personally liable for any court costs which accrue in any action by or against the board.
9. Upon appointment by the governor and confirmation by the senate of the landscape [architecture] architectural division, the landscape architectural council is hereby abolished and all of its powers, duties and responsibilities are transferred to and imposed upon the Missouri board for architects, professional engineers, professional land surveyors and landscape architects established pursuant to this section. Every act performed by or under the authority of the Missouri board for architects, professional engineers, professional land surveyors and landscape architects shall be deemed to have the same force and effect as if performed by the landscape architectural council pursuant to sections 327.600 to 327.635. All rules and regulations of the landscape architectural council shall continue in effect and shall be deemed to be duly adopted rules and regulations of the Missouri board [of] for architects, professional engineers, professional [landscape architects and land surveyors] land surveyors and landscape architects until such rules and regulations are revised, amended or repealed by the board as provided by law, such action to be taken by the board on or before January 1, 2002.
10. Upon appointment by the governor and confirmation by the senate of the landscape [architecture] architectural division, all moneys deposited in the landscape architectural council fund created in section 327.625 shall be transferred to the state board for architects, professional engineers, professional land surveyors and landscape architects fund created in section 327.081. The landscape architectural council fund shall be abolished upon the transfer of all moneys in it to the state board [of] for architects, professional engineers, professional land surveyors and landscape architects.
327.041. 1. The board shall have the duty and the power to carry out the purposes and to enforce and administer the provisions of this chapter, to require, by summons or subpoena, with [the advice of the attorney general and upon] the vote of two-thirds of the voting board members, the attendance and testimony of witnesses, and the production of drawings, plans, plats, specifications, books, papers or any document representing any matter under hearing or investigation, pertaining to the issuance, probation, suspension or revocation of certificates of registration or certificates of authority provided for in this chapter, or pertaining to the unlawful practice of architecture, professional engineering, professional land surveying or landscape architecture.
2. The board shall, within the scope and purview of the provisions of this chapter, prescribe the duties of its officers and employees and adopt, publish and enforce the rules and regulations of professional conduct which shall establish and maintain appropriate standards of competence and integrity in the professions of architecture, professional engineering, professional land surveying and landscape architecture, and adopt, publish and enforce procedural rules and regulations as may be considered by the board to be necessary or proper for the conduct of the board's business and the management of its affairs, and for the effective administration and interpretation of the provisions of this chapter. Any rule or portion of a rule, as that term is defined in section 536.010, RSMo, that is created under the authority delegated in this chapter shall become effective only if it complies with and is subject to all of the provisions of chapter 536, RSMo, and, if applicable, section 536.028, RSMo. This section and chapter 536, RSMo, are nonseverable and if any of the powers vested with the general assembly pursuant to chapter 536, RSMo, to review, to delay the effective date or to disapprove and annul a rule are subsequently held unconstitutional, then the grant of rulemaking authority and any rule proposed or adopted after August 28, 2001, shall be invalid and void.
3. Rules promulgated by the board pursuant to sections 327.272 to 327.635 shall be consistent with and shall not supersede the rules promulgated by the department of natural resources pursuant to chapter 60, RSMo.
327.272. 1. A professional land surveyor shall include any person who practices in Missouri as a professional land surveyor who uses the title of "surveyor" alone or in combination with any other word or words including, but not limited to "registered", "professional" or "land" indicating or implying that the person is, or holds himself or herself out to be a professional land surveyor who by word or words, letters, figures, degrees, titles or other descriptions indicates or implies that the person is a professional land surveyor or is willing or able to practice professional land surveying or who renders or offers to render, or holds himself or herself out as willing or able to render, or perform any service or work, the adequate performance of which involves the special knowledge and application of the principles of land surveying, mathematics, the related physical and applied sciences, and the relevant requirements of law, all of which are acquired by education, training, experience and examination, that affect real property rights on, under or above the land and which service or work involves:
(1) The determination, location, relocation, establishment, reestablishment, layout, or retracing of land boundaries and positions of the United States Public Land Survey System;
(2) Monumentation of land boundaries, land boundary corners and corners of the United States Public Land Survey System;
(3) The subdivision of land into smaller tracts;
(4) Creating, preparing, or modifying electronic or computerized data relative to the performance of the activities in subdivisions (1) to (3) of this subsection;
(5) Consultation, investigation, evaluation, planning, design and execution of surveys;
[(5)] (6) The preparation of any drawings showing the shape, location, dimensions or area of tracts of land;
[(6)] (7) Monumentation of geodetic control and the determination of their horizontal and vertical positions;
[(7)] (8) Establishment of state plane coordinates;
[(8)] (9) Topographic surveys and the determination of the horizontal and vertical location of any physical features on, under or above the land;
[(9)] (10) The preparation of plats, maps or other drawings showing elevations and the locations of improvements and the measurement and preparation of drawings showing existing improvements after construction;
[(10)] (11) Layout of proposed improvements;
[(11)] (12) The determination of azimuths by astronomic observations.
2. None of the specific duties listed in subdivisions (4) to [(11)] (12) of subsection 1 of this section are exclusive to professional land surveyors unless they affect real property rights. For the purposes of this section, the term "real property rights" means a recordable interest in real estate as it affects the location of land boundary lines.
3. Nothing in this section shall be construed to preclude the practice of architecture or professional engineering as provided in sections 327.091 and 327.181.
4. Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit the subdivision of land pursuant to section 137.185, RSMo.
327.351. 1. The professional license issued to every professional land surveyor in Missouri, including certificates of authority issued to corporations as provided in section 327.401, shall be renewed on or before the license or certificate renewal date provided that the required fee is paid. The license of any professional land surveyor or the certificate of authority of any such corporation which is not renewed within three months of the renewal date shall be suspended automatically, subject to the right of the holder of such suspended license or certificate to have it reinstated within nine months of the date of suspension, if the reinstatement fee is paid. Any license or certificate of authority suspended and not reinstated within nine months of the suspension date shall expire and be void and the holder of such expired license or certificate shall have no rights or privileges thereunder, but any person or corporation whose license or certificate has expired may, within the discretion of the board and upon payment of the required fee, be reregistered or relicensed under such person's or corporation's original license number.
2. Each application for the renewal of a license or of a certificate of authority shall be on a form furnished to the applicant and shall be accompanied by the required fee; but no renewal fee need be paid by any professional land surveyor over the age of seventy-five.
3. Beginning January 1, 1996, as a condition for renewal of a license issued pursuant to section 327.314, a license holder shall be required to successfully complete twenty units of professional development that meet the standards established by the board regulations within the preceding two calendar years. Any license holder who completes more than twenty units of professional development within the preceding two calendar years may have the excess, not to exceed ten units, applied to the requirement for the next two-year period.
4. The board shall not renew the license of any license holder who has failed to complete the professional development requirements pursuant to subsection 3 of this section, unless such license holder can show good cause why he or she was unable to comply with such requirements. If the board determines that good cause was shown, the board shall permit the license holder to make up all outstanding required units of professional development.
5. A license holder may at any time prior to the termination of his or her license request to be classified as inactive. Inactive licenses may be maintained by payment of an annual fee determined by the board. Holders of inactive licenses shall not be required to complete professional development as required in subsection 3 of this section. Holders of inactive licenses shall not practice as professional land surveyors within this state, but may continue to use the title "professional land surveyor" or the initials "PLS" after such person's name. If the board determines that good cause was shown, the board shall permit the professional land surveyor to make up all outstanding required units of professional development.
6. A holder of an inactive license may return such license to an active license to practice professional land surveying by paying the required fee, and either:
(1) Completing one-half of the two-year requirement for professional development multiplied by the number of years of lapsed or inactive status. The maximum requirement for professional development units shall be two and one-half times the two-year requirement. The minimum requirement for professional development units shall be no less than the two-year requirement. Such requirement shall be satisfied within the two years prior to the date of reinstatement; or
(2) Taking such examination as the board deems necessary to determine such person's qualifications. Such examination shall cover areas designed to demonstrate the applicant's proficiency in current methods of land surveying practice.
7. Exemption to the required professional development units shall be granted to registrants during periods of serving honorably on full-time active duty in the military service. 8. At the time of application for license renewal, each licensee shall report, on a form provided by the board, the professional development activities undertaken during the preceding renewal period to satisfy the requirements pursuant to subsection 3 of this section. The licensee shall maintain a file in which records of activities are kept, including dates, subjects, duration of program, and any other appropriate documentation, for a period of four years after the program date.
327.411. 1. Each architect and each professional engineer and each professional land surveyor and each landscape architect shall have a personal seal in a form prescribed by the board, and he or she shall affix the seal to all final documents including, but not limited to, plans, specifications, estimates, plats, reports, surveys, proposals and other documents or instruments prepared by the licensee, or under such licensee's immediate personal supervision. Such licensee shall either prepare or personally supervise the preparation of all documents sealed by the licensee, and such licensee shall be held personally responsible for the contents of all such documents sealed by such licensee, whether prepared or drafted by another licensee or not.
2. The personal seal of an architect or professional engineer or professional land surveyor or landscape architect shall be the legal equivalent of the licensee's signature whenever and wherever used, and the owner of the seal shall be responsible for the architectural, engineering, surveying, or landscape architectural documents, as the case may be, when the licensee places his or her personal seal on such plans, specifications, estimates, plats, reports, surveys or other documents or instruments for, or to be used in connection with, any architectural or engineering project, survey, or landscape architectural project. Licensees shall undertake to perform architectural, professional engineering, professional land surveying and landscape architectural services only when they are qualified by education, training, and experience in the specific technical areas involved.
3. Notwithstanding any provision of this section, any architect, professional engineer, professional land surveyor, or landscape architect may, but is not required to, attach a statement over his or her signature, authenticated by his or her personal seal, specifying the particular plans, specifications, plats, reports, surveys or other documents or instruments, or portions thereof, intended to be authenticated by the seal, and disclaiming any responsibility for all other plans, specifications, estimates, reports, or other documents or instruments relating to or intended to be used for any part or parts of the architectural or engineering project or survey or landscape architectural project.
4. Nothing in this section, or any rule or regulation of the board shall require any professional to seal preliminary or incomplete documents.
339.010. 1. A "real estate broker" is any person, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, association, professional corporation, or corporation, foreign or domestic who, for another, and for a compensation or valuable consideration, does, or attempts to do, any or all of the following:
(1) Sells, exchanges, purchases, rents, or leases real estate;
(2) Offers to sell, exchange, purchase, rent or lease real estate;
(3) Negotiates or offers or agrees to negotiate the sale, exchange, purchase, rental or leasing of real estate;
(4) Lists or offers or agrees to list real estate for sale, lease, rental or exchange;
(5) Buys, sells, offers to buy or sell or otherwise deals in options on real estate or improvements thereon;
(6) Advertises or holds himself or herself out as a licensed real estate broker while engaged in the business of buying, selling, exchanging, renting, or leasing real estate;
(7) Assists or directs in the procuring of prospects, calculated to result in the sale, exchange, leasing or rental of real estate;
(8) Assists or directs in the negotiation of any transaction calculated or intended to result in the sale, exchange, leasing or rental of real estate;
(9) Engages in the business of charging to an unlicensed person an advance fee in connection with any contract whereby the real estate broker undertakes to promote the sale of that person's real estate through its listing in a publication issued for such purpose intended to be circulated to the general public;
(10) Performs any of the foregoing acts on behalf of the owner of real estate, or interest therein, or improvements affixed thereon, for compensation.
2. A "real estate salesperson" is any person, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, association, professional corporation, or corporation, domestic or foreign who for a compensation or valuable consideration becomes associated, either as an independent contractor or employee, either directly or indirectly, with a real estate broker to do any of the things above mentioned. The provisions of sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860 shall not be construed to deny a real estate salesperson who is compensated solely by commission the right to be associated with a broker as an independent contractor.
3. A "real estate broker-salesperson" is any person, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, association, professional corporation, or corporation, domestic or foreign, who has a real estate broker license in good standing, who for a compensation or valuable consideration becomes associated, either as an independent contractor or employee, either directly or indirectly, with a real estate broker to do any of the things above mentioned. A real estate broker-salesperson may not also operate as a real estate broker. The provisions of sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860 shall not be construed to deny a real estate salesperson who is compensated solely by commission the right to be associated with a broker as an independent contractor.
[3.] 4. The term "commission" as used in sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860 means the Missouri real estate commission.
[4.] 5. "Real estate" for the purposes of sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860 shall mean, and include, leaseholds, as well as any other interest or estate in land, whether corporeal, incorporeal, freehold or nonfreehold, and the real estate is situated in this state.
[5.] 6. "Advertising" shall mean any communication, whether oral or written, between a licensee or other entity acting on behalf of one or more licensees and the public, and shall include, but not be limited to, business cards, signs, insignias, letterheads, radio, television, newspaper and magazine ads, Internet advertising, websites, display or group ads in telephone directories, and billboards.
[6.] 7. The provisions of sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860 shall not apply to:
(1) Any person, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, association, professional corporation, or corporation who as owner, lessor, or lessee shall perform any of the acts described in subsection 1 of this section with reference to property owned or leased by them, or to the regular employees thereof;
(2) Any licensed attorney-at-law;
(3) An auctioneer employed by the owner of the property;
(4) Any person acting as receiver, trustee in bankruptcy, administrator, executor, or guardian or while acting under a court order or under the authority of a will, trust instrument or deed of trust or as a witness in any judicial proceeding or other proceeding conducted by the state or any governmental subdivision or agency;
(5) Any person employed or retained to manage real property by, for, or on behalf of the agent or the owner of any real estate shall be exempt from holding a license, if the person is limited to one or more of the following activities:
(a) Delivery of a lease application, a lease, or any amendment thereof, to any person;
(b) Receiving a lease application, lease, or amendment thereof, a security deposit, rental payment, or any related payment, for delivery to, and made payable to, a broker or owner;
(c) Showing a rental unit to any person, as long as the employee is acting under the direct instructions of the broker or owner, including the execution of leases or rental agreements;
(d) Conveying information prepared by a broker or owner about a rental unit, a lease, an application for lease, or the status of a security deposit, or the payment of rent, by any person;
(e) Assisting in the performance of brokers' or owners' functions, administrative, clerical or maintenance tasks;
(f) If the person described in this section is employed or retained by, for, or on behalf of a real estate broker, the real estate broker shall be subject to discipline under this chapter for any conduct of the person that violates this chapter or the regulations promulgated thereunder;
(6) Any officer or employee of a federal agency or the state government or any political subdivision thereof performing official duties;
(7) Railroads and other public utilities regulated by the state of Missouri, or their subsidiaries or affiliated corporations, or to the officers or regular employees thereof, unless performance of any of the acts described in subsection 1 of this section is in connection with the sale, purchase, lease or other disposition of real estate or investment therein unrelated to the principal business activity of such railroad or other public utility or affiliated or subsidiary corporation thereof;
(8) Any bank, trust company, savings and loan association, credit union, insurance company, mortgage banker, or farm loan association organized under the laws of this state or of the United States when engaged in the transaction of business on its own behalf and not for others;
(9) Any newspaper, magazine, periodical, Internet site, Internet communications, or any form of communications regulated or licensed by the Federal Communications Commission or any successor agency or commission whereby the advertising of real estate is incidental to its operation;
(10) Any developer selling Missouri land owned by the developer;
(11) Any employee acting on behalf of a nonprofit community, or regional economic development association, agency or corporation which has as its principal purpose the general promotion and economic advancement of the community at large, provided that such entity:
(a) Does not offer such property for sale, lease, rental or exchange on behalf of another person or entity;
(b) Does not list or offer or agree to list such property for sale, lease, rental or exchange; or
(c) Receives no fee, commission or compensation, either monetary or in kind, that is directly related to sale or disposal of such properties. An economic developer's normal annual compensation shall be excluded from consideration as commission or compensation related to sale or disposal of such properties; or
(12) Any neighborhood association, as that term is defined in section 441.500, RSMo, that without compensation, either monetary or in kind, provides to prospective purchasers or lessors of property the asking price, location, and contact information regarding properties in and near the association's neighborhood, including any publication of such information in a newsletter, Internet site, or other medium.
339.020. It shall be unlawful for any person, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, association, professional corporation, or corporation, foreign or domestic, to act as a real estate broker, real estate broker-salesperson, or real estate salesperson, or to advertise or assume to act as such without a license first procured from the commission.
339.030. A corporation, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, professional corporation, or association shall be granted a broker’s, broker-salesperson’s, or salesperson’s license when the required fee is paid and:
(1) For a real estate broker individual licenses have been issued to every member, general partner, associate, manager, member, or officer of such partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, association, professional corporation, or corporation who actively participates in its brokerage business and to every person, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, professional corporation, or corporation who acts as a salesperson for such partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, association, professional corporation, or corporation [and when the required fee is paid.] , or
(2) For a real estate broker-salesperson when an individual broker-salesperson license has been issued to every general partner, associate, manager, member, or officer of such partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, association, professional corporation, or corporation who acts as a broker-salesperson, and individual salesperson licenses have been issued to all general partners, associates, managers, members, or officers of such partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, association, professional corporation, or corporation who act as a salesperson, or
(3) For a real estate salesperson when individual salesperson licenses have been issued to all general partners, associates, managers, members, or officers of such partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, association, professional corporation, or corporation who act as a salesperson.
339.040. 1. Licenses shall be granted only to persons who present, and corporations, associations, [or] partnerships, limited partnerships, limited liability companies, and professional corporations whose officers, managers, associates, [or] general partners, or members who actively participate in such entity’s brokerage, broker-salesperson, or salesperson business present, satisfactory proof to the commission that they:
(1) Are persons of good moral character; and
(2) Bear a good reputation for honesty, integrity, and fair dealing; and
(3) Are competent to transact the business of a broker or salesperson in such a manner as to safeguard the interest of the public.
2. In order to determine an applicant's qualifications to receive a license under sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860, the commission shall hold oral or written examinations at such times and places as the commission may determine.
3. Each applicant for a broker or salesperson license shall be at least eighteen years of age and shall pay the broker examination fee or the salesperson examination fee.
4. Each applicant for a broker license shall be required to have satisfactorily completed the salesperson license examination prescribed by the commission. For the purposes of this section only, the commission may permit a person who is not associated with a licensed broker to take the salesperson examination.
5. Each application for a broker license shall include a certificate from the applicant's broker or brokers that the applicant has been actively engaged in the real estate business as a licensed salesperson for at least two years immediately preceding the date of application, and shall include a certificate from a school accredited by the commission under the provisions of section 339.045 that the applicant has, within six months prior to the date of application, successfully completed the prescribed broker curriculum or broker correspondence course offered by such school, except that the commission may waive all or part of the requirements set forth in this subsection when an applicant presents proof of other educational background or experience acceptable to the commission. Each application for a broker-salesperson license shall include evidence of the current broker license held by the applicant.
6. Each application for a salesperson license shall include a certificate from a school accredited by the commission under the provisions of section 339.045 that the applicant has, within six months prior to the date of application, successfully completed the prescribed salesperson curriculum or salesperson correspondence course offered by such school, except that the commission may waive all or part of the educational requirements set forth in this subsection when an applicant presents proof of other educational background or experience acceptable to the commission.
7. The commission may issue a temporary work permit pending final review and printing of the license to an applicant who appears to have satisfied the requirements for licenses. The commission may, at its discretion, withdraw the work permit at any time.
8. Every active broker, broker-salesperson, salesperson, officer, manager, general partner, member or associate shall provide upon request to the commission evidence that during the two years preceding he or she has completed twelve hours of real estate instruction in courses approved by the commission. The commission may, by rule and regulation, provide for individual waiver of this requirement.
9. Each entity that provides continuing education required under the provisions of subsection 8 of this section may make available instruction courses that the entity conducts through means of distance delivery. The commission shall by rule set standards for such courses. The commission may by regulation require the individual completing such distance-delivered course to complete an examination on the contents of the course. Such examination shall be designed to ensure that the licensee displays adequate knowledge of the subject matter of the course, and shall be designed by the entity producing the course and approved by the commission.
10. In the event of the death or incapacity of a licensed broker, or of one or more of the licensed general partners, officers, managers, members or associates of a real estate partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, professional corporation, corporation, or association whereby the affairs of the broker, partnership, [or] limited partnership, limited liability company, professional corporation, corporation, or association cannot be carried on, the commission may issue, without examination or fee, to the legal representative or representatives of the deceased or incapacitated individual, or to another individual approved by the commission, a temporary broker license which shall authorize such individual to continue for a period to be designated by the commission to transact business for the sole purpose of winding up the affairs of the broker, partnership [or] , limited partnership, limited liability company, professional corporation, corporation, or association under the supervision of the commission.
339.080. 1. The commission may refuse to examine or issue a license to any person known by it to be guilty of any of the acts or practices specified in subsection 2 of section 339.100, or to any person previously licensed whose license has been revoked, or may refuse to issue a license to any association [or] , partnership, corporation, professional corporation, limited partnership, or limited liability company of which such person is a [member] manager, officer or general partner, or in which as a member, partner or associate such person has or exercises a controlling interest either directly or indirectly, or to any corporation of which such person is an officer or in which as a stockholder such person has or exercises a controlling interest either directly or indirectly.
2. Any person denied a license or the right to be examined shall be so notified by the commission in writing stating the reasons for denial or refusal to examine and informing the person so denied of his right to file a complaint with the administrative hearing commission in accordance with the applicable provisions of sections 621.015 to 621.198, RSMo, and the rules promulgated thereunder. All notices hereunder shall be sent by registered or certified mail to the last known address of the applicant.
339.110. The commission may refuse to issue a license to any person who is known by it to have been found guilty of forgery, embezzlement, obtaining money under false pretenses, extortion, criminal conspiracy to defraud, or other like offense, or to any association [or] , partnership, corporation, professional corporation, limited partnership, or limited liability company of which [the person is a member] such person is a manager, officer or general partner, or in which as a member, partner or associate such person has or exercises a controlling interest either directly or indirectly, or to any corporation of which [the] such person is an officer or in which as a stockholder [the] such person has or exercises a controlling interest either directly or indirectly.
339.160. No person, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, professional corporations, corporation[,] or association engaged within this state in the business or acting in the capacity of a real estate broker, real estate broker-salesperson or real estate salesperson shall bring or maintain an action in any court in this state for the recovery of compensation for services rendered in the buying, selling, exchanging, leasing, renting or negotiating a loan upon any real estate without alleging and proving that such person, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, professional corporation, corporation[,] or association, or its member, manager, officer, general partner or associate, as applicable, was a licensed real estate broker, broker-salesperson or salesperson at the time when the alleged cause of action arose.
339.170. Any person or corporation, professional corporation, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company or association knowingly violating any provision of sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860 shall be guilty of a class B misdemeanor. Any officer or agent of a corporation, or any member, manager, officer, associate, general partner or agent of a partnership [or] , association, corporation, professional corporation, limited partnership, or limited liability company who actively participate in such entity's brokerage business, who shall knowingly and personally participate in or be an accessory to any violation of sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860, shall be guilty of a class B misdemeanor. This section shall not be construed to release any person from civil liability or criminal prosecution under any other law of this state. The commission may cause complaint to be filed for violation of section 339.020 in any court of competent jurisdiction, and perform such other acts as may be necessary to enforce the provisions hereof.
339.503. As used in sections 339.500 to 339.549, the following words and phrases mean, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
(1) "Appraisal" or "real estate appraisal", an objective analysis, evaluation, opinion, or conclusion relating to the nature, quality, value or utility of specified interests in, or aspects of, identified real estate. An appraisal may be classified by subject matter into either a valuation or an analysis;
(2) "Appraisal assignment", an engagement for which a person is employed or retained to act as a disinterested third party in rendering an objective appraisal;
(3) "Appraisal foundation", the organization of the same name that was incorporated as an Illinois not-for-profit corporation on November 20, 1987, whose operative boards are the appraisal standards board and the appraiser qualifications board;
(4) "Appraisal report", any communication, written or oral, of an appraisal. The purpose of an appraisal is immaterial, therefore valuation reports, real estate counseling reports, real estate tax counseling reports, real estate offering memoranda, mortgage banking offers, highest and best use studies, market demand and economic feasibility studies and all other reports communicating an appraisal analysis, opinion or conclusion are appraisal reports, regardless of title;
(5) "Appraisal standards board (ASB)", the independent board of the appraisal foundation which promulgates the generally accepted standards of the appraisal profession and the uniform standards of professional appraisal practices;
(6) "Appraiser qualifications board (AQB)", the independent board of the appraisal foundation which establishes minimum experience, education and examination criteria for state licensing of appraisers;
(7) "Boat dock", a structure for loading and unloading boats and connecting real property to water, public or private. A boat dock is real property and has riparian rights, provided:
(a) The lender includes the boat dock as a fixture both in the lender's deed of trust and a uniform commercial code fixture filing under section 400.9-502, RSMo;
(b) The boat dock is attached to the real property by steel cable, bar, or chain that is permanently imbedded in concrete or rock, and otherwise securely attached to the dock; and
(c) The owner of the dock has riparian rights by means of real estate rights bordering the body of water, including such rights by license, grant, or other means allowing access to the body of water, which access may be seasonal because the water may be reduced for electric power production or flood control;
(8) "Boat slip" or "watercraft slip", a defined area of water, including the riparian rights to use such area, whether by grant, lease, or license, in accordance with all applicable laws and regulations, which is a part of a boat dock serving a common interest community, including by way of example and not of limitation condominiums and villas; and the exclusive right to such use being allocated as a limited common element or being assigned to an owner of real estate in the common interest community in which the boat dock is located, whether by grant, lease, or otherwise. The rights of the real estate owner in such slip are included as collateral in any deed of trust and uniform commercial code filings of a lender, if any, taking a security interest in the owner's real estate;
(9) "Broker price opinion", an opinion of value, prepared by a real estate licensee for a fee, that includes, but is not limited to, analysis of competing properties, comparable sold properties, recommended repairs and costs or suggested marketing techniques. A broker price opinion is not an appraisal and shall specifically state it is not an appraisal;
[(9)] (10) "Certificate", the document issued by the Missouri real estate appraisers commission evidencing that the person named therein has satisfied the requirements for certification as a state-certified real estate appraiser and bearing a certificate number assigned by the commission;
[(10)] (11) "Certificate holder", a person certified by the commission pursuant to the provisions of sections 339.500 to 339.549;
[(11)] (12) "Certified appraisal report", an appraisal prepared or signed by a state-certified real estate appraiser. A certified appraisal report represents to the public that it meets the appraisal standards defined in sections 339.500 to 339.549;
[(12)] (13) "Commission", the Missouri real estate appraisers commission, created in section 339.507;
[(13)] (14) "Comparative market analysis", the analysis of sales of similar recently sold properties in order to derive an indication of the probable sales price of a particular property undertaken by a licensed real estate broker or agent, for his or her principal. A comparative market analysis is not an appraisal and shall specifically state it is not an appraisal;
[(14)] (15) "Disinterested third party" shall not exclude any state-certified real estate appraiser or state-licensed real estate appraiser employed or retained by any bank, savings association, credit union, mortgage banker or other lender to perform appraisal assignments, provided that the appraisal assignments are rendered with respect to loans to be extended by the bank, savings association, credit union, mortgage banker or other lender, and provided further that the state-certified real estate appraiser or state-licensed real estate appraiser is not requested or required to report a predetermined analysis or opinion of value;
[(15)] (16) "License" or "licensure", a license or licensure issued pursuant to the provisions of sections 339.500 to 339.549 evidencing that the person named therein has satisfied the requirements for licensure as a state-licensed real estate appraiser and bearing a license number assigned by the commission;
[(16)] (17) "Real estate", an identified parcel or tract of land, including improvements, if any;
[(17)] (18) "Real estate appraiser" or "appraiser", a person who for a fee or valuable consideration develops and communicates real estate appraisals or otherwise gives an opinion of the value of real estate or any interest therein;
[(18)] (19) "Real estate appraising", the practice of developing and communicating real estate appraisals;
[(19)] (20) "Real property", the interests, benefits and rights inherent in the ownership of real estate;
[(20)] (21) "Residential real estate", any parcel of real estate, improved or unimproved, that is primarily residential in nature and that includes or is intended to include a residential structure containing not more than four dwelling units and no other improvements except those which are typical residential improvements that support the residential use for the location and property type. A residential unit is a condominium, town house or cooperative complex, or a planned unit development is considered to be residential real estate. Subdivisions are not considered residential real estate. Individual parcels of property located within a residential subdivision shall be considered residential property;
[(21)] (22) "Specialized appraisal services", appraisal services which do not fall within the definition of appraisal assignment. The term "specialized services" may include valuation work and analysis work. Regardless of the intention of the client or employer, if the appraiser is acting as a disinterested third party in rendering an unbiased analysis, opinion or conclusion, the work is classified as an appraisal assignment and not specialized services;
[(22)] (23) "State-certified general real estate appraiser", a person who holds a current, valid certificate as a state-certified general real estate appraiser issued pursuant to the provisions of sections 339.500 to 339.549;
[(23)] (24) "State-certified residential real estate appraiser", a person who holds a current, valid certificate as a state-certified residential real estate appraiser issued pursuant to the provisions of sections 339.500 to 339.549;
[(24)] (25) "State-licensed real estate appraiser", a person who holds a current, valid license as a state-licensed real estate appraiser pursuant to the provisions of sections 339.500 to 339.549;
[(25)] (26) "Subdivision", a tract of land that has been divided into blocks or plots with streets, roadways, open areas and other facilities appropriate to its development as residential, commercial or industrial sites;
[(26)] (27) "Temporary appraiser licensure or certification", the issuance of a temporary license or certificate by the commission to a person licensed or certified in another state who enters this state for the purpose of completing a particular appraisal assignment.
339.710. For purposes of sections 339.010 to 339.180, and sections 339.710 to 339.860, the following terms mean:
(1) "Adverse material fact", a fact related to the property not reasonably ascertainable or known to a party which negatively affects the value of the property. Adverse material facts may include matters pertaining to:
(a) Environmental hazards affecting the property;
(b) Physical condition of the property which adversely affects the value of the property;
(c) Material defects in the property;
(d) Material defects in the title to the property;
(e) Material limitation of the party's ability to perform under the terms of the contract;
(2) "Affiliated licensee", any broker or salesperson who works under the supervision of a designated broker;
(3) "Agent", a person or entity acting pursuant to the provisions of this chapter;
(4) "Broker disclosure form", the current form prescribed by the commission for presentation to a seller, landlord, buyer or tenant who has not entered into a written agreement for brokerage services;
(5) "Brokerage relationship", the relationship created between a designated broker, the broker's affiliated licensees, and a client relating to the performance of services of a broker as defined in section 339.010, and sections 339.710 to 339.860. If a designated broker makes an appointment of an affiliated licensee or affiliated licensees pursuant to section 339.820, such brokerage relationships are created between the appointed licensee or licensees and the client. Nothing in this subdivision shall:
(a) Alleviate the designated broker from duties of supervision of the appointed licensee or licensees; or
(b) Alter the designated broker's underlying contractual agreement with the client;
(6) "Client", a seller, landlord, buyer, or tenant who has entered into a brokerage relationship with a licensee pursuant to sections 339.710 to 339.860;
(7) "Commercial real estate", any real estate other than real estate containing one to four residential units or real estate classified as agricultural and horticultural property for assessment purposes pursuant to section 137.016, RSMo. Commercial real estate does not include single family residential units including condominiums, townhouses, or homes in a subdivision when that real estate is sold, leased, or otherwise conveyed on a unit-by-unit basis even though the units may be part of a larger building or parcel of real estate containing more than four units;
(8) "Commission", the Missouri real estate commission;
(9) "Confidential information", information obtained by the licensee from the client and designated as confidential by the client, information made confidential by sections 339.710 to 339.860 or any other statute or regulation, or written instructions from the client unless the information is made public or becomes public by the words or conduct of the client to whom the information pertains or by a source other than the licensee;
(10) "Customer", an actual or potential seller, landlord, buyer, or tenant in a real estate transaction in which a licensee is involved but who has not entered into a brokerage relationship with the licensee;
(11) "Designated agent", a licensee named by a designated broker as the limited agent of a client as provided for in section 339.820;
(12) "Designated broker", any individual licensed as a broker who is operating pursuant to the definition of real estate broker as defined in section 339.010, or any individual licensed as a broker who is appointed by a partnership, limited partnership, association, limited liability corporation, professional corporation, or a corporation engaged in the real estate brokerage business to be responsible for the acts of the partnership, limited partnership, association, limited liability [corporation,] company, professional corporation or corporation. Every real estate broker partnership, limited partnership, association, [or] limited liability [corporation] company, professional corporation or corporation shall appoint a designated broker;
(13) "Designated transaction broker", a licensee named by a designated broker or deemed appointed by a designated broker as the transaction broker for a client pursuant to section 339.820;
(14) "Dual agency", a form of agency which may result when an agent licensee or someone affiliated with the agent licensee represents another party to the same transaction;
(15) "Dual agent", a limited agent who, with the written consent of all parties to a contemplated real estate transaction, has entered into an agency brokerage relationship, and not a transaction brokerage relationship, with and therefore represents both the seller and buyer or both the landlord and tenant;
(16) "Exclusive brokerage agreement", means a written brokerage agreement which provides that the broker has the sole right, through the broker or through one or more affiliated licensees, to act as the exclusive limited agent, representative, or transaction broker of the client or customer that meets the requirements of section 339.780;
(17) "Licensee", a real estate broker or salesperson as defined in section 339.010;
(18) "Limited agent", a licensee whose duties and obligations to a client are those set forth in sections 339.730 to 339.750;
(19) "Ministerial acts", those acts that a licensee may perform for a person or entity that are informative in nature and do not rise to the level which requires the creation of a brokerage relationship. Examples of these acts include, but are not limited to:
(a) Responding to telephone inquiries by consumers as to the availability and pricing of brokerage services;
(b) Responding to telephone inquiries from a person concerning the price or location of property;
(c) Attending an open house and responding to questions about the property from a consumer;
(d) Setting an appointment to view property;
(e) Responding to questions of consumers walking into a licensee's office concerning brokerage services offered on particular properties;
(f) Accompanying an appraiser, inspector, contractor, or similar third party on a visit to a property;
(g) Describing a property or the property's condition in response to a person's inquiry;
(h) Showing a customer through a property being sold by an owner on his or her own behalf; or
(i) Referral to another broker or service provider;
(20) "Residential real estate", all real property improved by a structure that is used or intended to be used primarily for residential living by human occupants and that contains not more than four dwelling units or that contains single dwelling units owned as a condominium or in a cooperative housing association, and vacant land classified as residential property. The term "cooperative housing association" means an association, whether incorporated or unincorporated, organized for the purpose of owning and operating residential real property in Missouri, the shareholders or members of which, by reason of their ownership of a stock or membership certificate, a proprietary lease, or other evidence of membership, are entitled to occupy a dwelling unit pursuant to the terms of a proprietary lease or occupancy agreement;
(21) "Single agent", a licensee who has entered into a brokerage relationship with and therefore represents only one party in a real estate transaction. A single agent may be one of the following:
(a) "Buyer's agent", which shall mean a licensee who represents the buyer in a real estate transaction;
(b) "Landlord's agent", which shall mean a licensee who represents a landlord in a leasing transaction;
(c) "Seller's agent", which shall mean a licensee who represents the seller in a real estate transaction; and
(d) "Tenant's agent", which shall mean a licensee who represents the tenant in a leasing transaction;
(22) "Subagent", a designated broker, together with the broker's affiliated licensees, engaged by another designated broker, together with the broker's affiliated or appointed affiliated licensees, to act as a limited agent for a client, or a designated broker's unappointed affiliated licensees engaged by the designated broker, together with the broker's appointed affiliated licensees, to act as a limited agent for a client. A subagent owes the same obligations and responsibilities to the client pursuant to sections 339.730 to 339.740 as does the client's designated broker;
(23) "Transaction broker", any licensee acting pursuant to sections 339.710 to 339.860, who:
(a) Assists the parties to a transaction without an agency or fiduciary relationship to either party and is, therefore, neutral, serving neither as an advocate or advisor for either party to the transaction;
(b) Assists one or more parties to a transaction and who has not entered into a specific written agency agreement to represent one or more of the parties; or
(c) Assists another party to the same transaction either solely or through licensee affiliates. Such licensee shall be deemed to be a transaction broker and not a dual agent, provided that, notice of assumption of transaction broker status is provided to the buyer and seller immediately upon such default to transaction broker status, to be confirmed in writing prior to execution of the contract.
339.845. If the commission receives a notice of delinquent taxes from the director of revenue under the provisions of section 324.010 regarding a real estate broker or salesperson, the commission shall immediately send a copy of such notice to the real estate broker with which the real estate broker or salesperson is associated.
339.1100. Sections 339.1100 to 339.1240 shall be known and may be cited as the "Missouri Appraisal Management Company Registration and Regulation Act".
339.1105. As used in sections 339.1100 to 339.1240, unless the context otherwise requires, the following terms shall mean:
(1) "Appraisal" or "real estate appraisal", an objective analysis, evaluation, opinion, or conclusion relating to the nature, quality, value or utility of specified interests in, or aspects of, identified real estate. An appraisal may be classified by subject matter into either a valuation or an analysis;
(2) "Appraisal firm", a person, limited liability company, partnership, association, or corporation whose principal is an appraiser licensed under sections 339.500 to 339.549 which for compensation prepares and communicates appraisals, reviews appraisals prepared by others, provides appraisal consultation services, and supervises, trains, and reviews work produced or certified by persons licensed under sections 339.500 to 339.549 who produces appraisals;
(3) "Appraisal management company", an individual or business entity that utilizes an appraisal panel and performs, directly or indirectly, appraisal management services;
(4) "Appraisal management services", to directly or indirectly perform any of the following functions on behalf of a lender, financial institution, client, or any other person:
(a) Administer an appraiser panel;
(b) Recruit, qualify, verify licensing or certification, and negotiate fees and service level expectations with persons who are part of an appraiser panel;
(c) Receive an order for an appraisal from one person and deliver the order for the appraisal to an appraiser that is part of an appraiser panel for completion;
(d) Track and determine the status of orders for appraisals;
(e) Conduct quality control of a completed appraisal prior to the delivery of the appraisal to the person that ordered the appraisal; and
(f) Provide a completed appraisal performed by an appraiser to one or more persons who have ordered an appraisal;
(5) "Appraisal review", the act or process of developing and communicating an opinion about the quality of another appraiser's work that was performed as part of an appraisal assignment, except that an examination of an appraisal for grammatical, typographical, or other similar errors shall not be an appraisal review;
(6) "Appraiser", an individual who holds a license as a state licensed real estate appraiser or certification as a state certified real estate appraiser under this chapter;
(7) "Appraiser panel", a network of licensed or certified appraisers that have:
(a) Responded to an invitation, request, or solicitation from an appraisal management company, in any form, to perform appraisals for persons that have ordered appraisals through the appraisal management company or to perform appraisals for the appraisal management company directly; and
(b) Been selected and approved by an appraisal management company to perform appraisals for any client of the appraisal management company that has ordered an appraisal through the appraisal management company or to perform appraisals for the appraisal management company directly;
(8) "Commission", the Missouri real estate appraisers commission created in section 339.507;
(9) "Controlling person":
(a) An owner, officer or director of a corporation, partnership, or other business entity seeking to offer appraisal management services in this state;
(b) An individual employed, appointed, or authorized by an appraisal management company that has the authority to enter into a contractual relationship with other persons for the performance of appraisal management services and has the authority to enter into agreements with appraisers for the performance of appraisals; or
(c) An individual who possesses, directly or indirectly, the power to direct or cause the direction of the management or policies of an appraisal management company;
(10) "State certified real estate appraiser", a person who develops and communicates real estate appraisals and who holds a current valid certificate issued to the person for either general or residential real estate under this chapter;
(11) "State licensed real estate appraiser", a person who holds a current valid real estate appraiser license issued under this chapter.
339.1110. 1. No person shall directly or indirectly engage or attempt to engage in business as an appraisal management company, to directly or indirectly engage or attempt to perform appraisal management services, or to advertise or hold itself out as engaging in or conducting business as an appraisal management company without first obtaining a registration issued by the commission under sections 339.1100 to 339.1240.
2. The registration required by subsection 1 of this section shall, at a minimum, include the following:
(1) Name of the entity seeking registration;
(2) Business address of the entity seeking registration, which shall be located and maintained within this state;
(3) Phone contact information of the entity seeking registration;
(4) If the entity is not a corporation that is domiciled in this state, the name and contact information for the company's agent for service of process in this state;
(5) The name, address, and contact information for any individual or any corporation, partnership, or other business entity that owns ten percent or more of the appraisal management company;
(6) The name, address, and contact information for a designated controlling person to be the primary communication source for the commission;
(7) A certification that the entity has a system and process in place to verify that a person being added to the appraiser panel of the appraisal management company for appraisal services to be performed in Missouri holds a license in good standing in Missouri, if a license or certification is required to perform appraisals under section 339.1180;
(8) A certification that the entity has a system in place to review the work of all appraisers who are performing real estate appraisal services for the appraisal management company on a periodic basis to validate that the real estate appraisal services are being conducted in accordance with Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP) under section 339.1185;
(9) A certification that the entity maintains a detailed record of each service request that it receives for appraisal services within the state of Missouri and the appraiser who performs the real estate appraisal services for the appraisal management company under section 339.1190;
(10) An irrevocable Uniform Consent to Service of Process under section 339.1130; and
(11) Any other reasonable information required by the commission to complete the registration process.
339.1115. Sections 339.1100 to 339.1240 shall not apply to:
(1) The performance of services as an appraisal firm;
(2) A national or state bank, federal or state savings institution, or credit union that is subject to direct regulation or supervision by an agency of the United States government, or by the department of insurance, financial institutions or professional registration, that receives a request for the performance of an appraisal from one employee of the financial institution, and another employee of the same financial institution assigns the request for the appraisal to an appraiser who is an independent contractor to the institution. An entity exempt as provided in this subdivision shall file a notice with the commission containing the information required in section 339.1110;
(3) An appraiser that enters into an agreement, whether written or otherwise, with an appraiser for the performance of an appraisal, and upon the completion of the appraisal, the report of the appraiser performing the appraisal is signed by both the appraiser who completed the appraisal and the appraiser who requested the completion of the appraisal;
(4) A state agency or local municipality that orders appraisals for ad valorem tax purposes or any other business on behalf of the state of Missouri;
(5) Any person licensed to practice law in this state, a court-appointed personal representative, or a trustee who orders an appraisal in connection with a bona fide client relationship when such person directly contracts with an independent appraiser.
339.1120. An applicant for a registration as an appraisal management company shall submit to the commission an application containing the information required in subsection 2 of section 339.1110 on a form prescribed by the commission.
339.1125. Registration shall be valid for two years from its issuance.
339.1130. Each entity applying for a registration as an appraisal management company in Missouri shall complete an irrevocable Uniform Consent to Service of Process, as prescribed by the commission.
339.1135. 1. The commission shall establish by rule the fee to be paid by each appraisal management company seeking registration under sections 339.1100 to 339.1240, such that the sum of the fees paid by all appraisal management companies seeking registration under this section shall be sufficient for the administration of sections 339.1100 to 339.1240. The commission shall charge and collect fees to be utilized to fund activities that may be necessary to carry out the provisions of this chapter.
2. Each applicant for registration shall post with the commission and maintain on renewal a surety bond in the amount of twenty thousand dollars. The details of the bond shall be prescribed by rule of the commission, however, the bond shall not be used to assist appraisers in collection efforts of credit extended by the appraiser.
3. Any rule or portion of a rule, as that term is defined in section 536.010, that is created under the authority delegated in sections 339.1100 to 339.1240 shall become effective only if it complies with and is subject to all of the provisions of chapter 536 and, if applicable, section 536.028. Sections 339.1100 to 339.1240 and chapter 536 are nonseverable and if any of the powers vested with the general assembly pursuant to chapter 536 to review, to delay the effective date, or to disapprove and annul a rule are subsequently held unconstitutional, then the grant of rulemaking authority and any rule proposed or adopted after August 28, 2010, shall be invalid and void.
339.1140. 1. An appraisal management company applying for a registration in Missouri shall not be more than ten percent owned by:
(1) A person who has had a license or certificate to act as an appraiser refused, denied, canceled, revoked, or surrendered in lieu of a pending revocation in any state;
(2) An entity that is more than ten percent owned by any person who has had a license or certificate to act as an appraiser refused, denied, canceled, revoked, or surrendered in lieu of a pending revocation in any state.
2. Each person who owns more than ten percent of an appraisal management company in this state shall:
(1) Be of good moral character, as determined by the commission; and
(2) Submit to a background investigation, as determined by the commission.
3. Each appraisal management company applying for registration shall certify to the commission that it has reviewed each entity that owns more than ten percent of the appraisal management company and that no entity that owns more than ten percent of the appraisal management company is more than ten percent owned by any person who has had a license or certificate to act as an appraiser refused, denied, cancelled, revoked, or surrendered in lieu of a pending revocation.
4. Each appraisal management company shall notify the commission within thirty days of a change in its controlling principal, agent of record, or ownership composition.
339.1145. 1. Each appraisal management company applying to the commission for a registration in this state shall designate one compliance manager who will be the main contact for all communication between the commission and the appraisal management company.
2. The designated controlling person under subsection 1 of this section shall:
(1) Have never had a license or certificate to act as an appraiser refused, denied, canceled, revoked, or surrendered in lieu of a pending revocation in any state;
(2) Be of good moral character, as determined by the commission; and
(3) Submit to a background investigation, as determined by the commission.
339.1150. 1. An appraisal management company that applies to the commission for registration to do business in this state as an appraisal management company under subdivision (1) of section 339.1115 shall not:
(1) Employ any person directly involved in appraisal management services who has had a license or certificate to act as an appraiser in Missouri or in any other state refused, denied, cancelled, revoked, or surrendered in lieu of a pending revocation;
(2) Knowingly enter into any independent contractor arrangement, whether in verbal, written, or other form, with any person who has had a license or certificate to act as an appraiser in Missouri or in any other state refused, denied, cancelled, revoked, or surrendered in lieu of a pending revocation;
(3) Knowingly enter into any contract, agreement, or other business relationship directly involved with the performance of real estate appraisal or appraisal management services, whether in verbal, written, or any other form, with any entity that employs, has entered into an independent contract arrangement, or has entered into any contract, agreement, or other business relationship, whether in verbal, written, or any other form, with any person who has ever had a license or certificate to act as an appraiser in Missouri or in any other state, refused, denied, cancelled, revoked, or surrendered in lieu of a pending revocation.
339.1155. Prior to placing an assignment for real estate appraisal services within the state of Missouri with an appraiser on the appraiser panel of an appraisal management company, the appraisal management company shall have a system in place to verify that the appraiser receiving the assignment holds a credential in good standing in the state of Missouri. Letters of engagement shall include instructions to the appraiser to decline the assignment in the event the appraiser is not geographically competent or the assignment falls outside the appraiser's scope of practice restrictions.
339.1160. Any employee or independent contractor of the appraisal management company who performs an appraisal review shall be an individual who holds a license as a state licensed real estate appraiser or certification as a state certified real estate appraiser under this chapter. Letters of engagement shall include instructions to the appraiser to decline the appraisal review assignment in the event the appraiser is not geographically competent or the assignment falls outside the appraiser's scope of practice restrictions.
339.1170. Each appraisal management company seeking to be registered shall certify to the commission on a biannual basis on a form prescribed by the commission that the appraisal management company has a system and process in place to verify that an individual being added to the appraiser panel of the appraisal management company holds a license in good standing in this state under this chapter.
339.1175. Each appraisal management company seeking to be registered shall certify to the commission on a biannual basis on a form prescribed by the commission that the appraisal management company has a system in place to verify that an individual to whom the appraisal management company is making an assignment for the completion of an appraisal has not had a license or certification as an appraiser refused, denied, cancelled, revoked, or surrendered in lieu of a pending revocation on a regular basis.
339.1180. Each registered appraisal management company shall certify to the commission on a biannual basis that it has a system in place to perform an appraisal review on a periodic basis of the work of all appraisers who are performing appraisals for the appraisal management company to validate that the appraisals are being conducted in accordance with Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP). An appraisal management company shall report to the commission the results of any appraisal reviews in which an appraisal is found to be substantially noncompliant with USPAP or state or federal laws pertaining to appraisals.
339.1185. 1. Each appraisal management company seeking to be registered shall certify to the commission biannually that it maintains a detailed record of each service request for appraisal services within the state of Missouri and that it receives of each appraiser who performs an appraisal for the appraisal management company in the state of Missouri.
2. All appraisal management company records shall be retained for five years.
339.1190. 1. An appraisal management company shall not prohibit its appraiser who is part of an appraiser panel from recording the fee that the appraiser was paid by the appraisal management company for the performance of the appraisal within the appraisal report that is submitted by the appraiser to the appraisal management company.
2. An appraisal management company shall separately state to the client the fees paid to an appraiser for appraisal services and the fees charged by the appraisal management company for services associated with the management of the appraisal process, including procurement of the appraiser's services.
339.1200. 1. No employee, director, officer, or agent of an appraisal management company shall influence or attempt to influence the development, reporting, or review of an appraisal through coercion, extortion, collusion, compensation, instruction, inducement, intimidation, bribery or in any other manner, including but not limited to:
(1) Withholding or threatening to withhold timely payment for an appraisal, except in cases of substandard performance or noncompliance with conditions of engagement;
(2) Withholding or threatening to withhold future business, or demoting, terminating, or threatening to demote or terminate an appraiser;
(3) Expressly or impliedly promising future business, promotions, or increased compensation for an appraiser;
(4) Conditioning the request for an appraisal or the payment of an appraisal fee or salary or bonus on the opinion, conclusion, or valuation to be reached, or on a preliminary estimate or opinion requested from an appraiser;
(5) Requesting that an appraiser provide an estimated, predetermined, or desired valuation in an appraisal report, or provide estimated values or comparable sales at any time prior to the appraiser's completion of an appraisal;
(6) Providing to an appraiser an anticipated, estimated, encouraged, or desired value for a subject property or a proposed or target amount to be loaned to the borrower, except that a copy of the sales contract for purchase transactions may be provided;
(7) Providing to an appraiser, or any entity or person related to the appraiser, stock or other financial or nonfinancial benefits;
(8) Allowing the removal of an appraiser from an appraiser panel without prior written notice to such appraiser;
(9) Any other act or practice that knowingly impairs or attempts to impair an appraiser's independence, objectivity, or impartiality;
(10) Requiring an appraiser to collect an appraisal fee on behalf of the appraisal management company from the borrower, homeowner, or other third party; or
(11) Requiring an appraiser to indemnify an appraisal management company or hold an appraisal management company harmless for any liability, damage, losses, or claims arising out of the services performed by the appraisal management company, and not the services performed by the appraiser.
2. Nothing in subsection 1 of this section shall prohibit the appraisal management company from requesting that an appraiser:
(1) Provide additional information about the basis for a valuation; or
(2) Correct objective factual errors in an appraisal report; or
(3) Provide additional information with the appraisal regarding additional sales provided through an established dispute process.
339.1205. An appraisal management company shall not:
(1) Require an appraiser to modify any aspect of an appraisal report unless the modification complies with section 339.1200;
(2) Require an appraiser to prepare an appraisal report if the appraiser, in the appraiser's own professional judgment, believes the appraiser does not have the necessary expertise for the assignment or for the specific geographic area, and has notified the appraisal management company and declined the assignment;
(3) Require an appraiser to prepare an appraisal under a time frame that the appraiser, in the appraiser's own professional judgment, believes does not afford the appraiser the ability to meet all the relevant legal and professional obligations, and has notified the appraisal management company and declined the assignment;
(4) Prohibit or inhibit legal or other allowable communication between the appraiser and:
(a) The lender;
(b) A real estate licensee; or
(c) Any other person from whom the appraiser, in the appraiser's own professional judgment, believes information would be relevant;
(5) Knowingly require the appraiser to do anything that does not comply with:
(a) Uniformed Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP);
(b) The Missouri certified and licensed real estate appraisers act established under this chapter; or
(c) Any assignment conditions and certifications required by the client;
(6) Make any portion of the appraiser's fee or the appraisal management company's fee contingent on a predetermined or favorable outcome, including but not limited to:
(a) A loan closing; or
(b) Specific dollar amount being achieved by the appraiser in the appraisal report.
339.1210. Each appraisal management company shall, except in cases of breach of contract or substandard performance of services, make payment to an appraiser for the completion of an appraisal or valuation assignment within thirty days, unless a mutually agreed upon alternate payment schedule exists, from when the appraiser transmits or otherwise provides the completed appraisal or valuation study to the appraisal management company or its assignee.
339.1215. 1. An appraisal management company shall not alter, modify, or otherwise change a completed appraisal report submitted by an appraiser by:
(1) Permanently removing the appraiser's signature or seal; or
(2) Adding information to, or removing information from, the appraisal report with an intent to change the valuation conclusion.
2. No registered appraisal management company shall require an appraiser to provide the appraisal management company with the appraiser's digital signature or seal.
339.1220. 1. The commission shall issue a unique registration number to each appraisal management company.
2. The commission shall publish a list of the appraisal management companies that have registered under sections 339.1100 to 339.1240 and have been issued a registration number.
3. An appraisal management company shall be required to disclose the registration number on each engagement letter utilized in assigning an appraisal request for real estate appraisal assignments within the state of Missouri.
339.1230. 1. Except within the first thirty days after an appraiser is first added to the appraiser panel of an appraisal management company, an appraisal management company shall not remove an appraiser from its appraiser panel or otherwise refuse to assign requests for real estate appraisal services to an appraiser without:
(1) Notifying the appraiser in writing of the reasons why the appraiser is being removed from the appraiser panel of the appraisal management company;
(2) If the appraiser is being removed from the panel for illegal conduct, violation of the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP), or a violation of state licensing standards, describing the nature of the alleged conduct or violation; and
(3) Providing an opportunity for the appraiser to respond to the notification of the appraisal management company.
2. An appraiser who is removed from the appraiser panel of an appraisal management company for alleged illegal conduct, violation of the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP), or violation of state licensing standards may file a complaint with the commission for a review of the decision of the appraisal management company; except that, in no case shall the commission make any determination regarding the nature of the business relationship between the appraiser and the appraisal management company which is unrelated to the actions specified in subsection 1 of this section.
3. If after notice and an opportunity for hearing and review, the commission determines that an appraiser did not commit a violation of law, a violation of the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP), or a violation of state licensing standards, the commission shall order that such appraiser be added to the appraiser panel of the appraisal management company.
4. If the commission has found that the appraisal management company acted improperly in removing the appraiser from the appraiser panel, an appraisal management company shall not refuse to make assignments for real estate appraisal services to an appraiser, or reduce the number of assignments, or otherwise penalize the appraiser.
339.1235. 1. The commission may censure an appraisal management company, conditionally or unconditionally suspend or revoke any registration issued under sections 339.1100 to 339.1240, or impose civil penalties not to exceed one thousand dollars for each offense. Each day of a continued violation constitutes a separate offense, with a maximum penalty of ten thousand dollars. In determining the amount of penalty to be imposed, the commission may consider if an appraisal management company is:
(1) Knowingly committing any act in violation of sections 339.1100 to 339.1240;
(2) Violating any rule adopted by the commission; or
(3) Procuring a license by fraud, misrepresentation, or deceit.
339.1240. The conduct of adjudicatory proceedings for violations of this section is vested in the commission, provided:
(1) Before censuring any registrant, or suspending or revoking any registration, the commission shall notify the registrant in writing of any charges made at least twenty days before the hearing and shall afford the registrant an opportunity to be heard in person or by counsel; and
(2) Written notice shall be satisfied by personal service on the controlling person of the registrant, or the registrant's agent for service of process in this state, or by sending the notice by certified mail, return receipt requested to the controlling person of the registrant to the registrant's address on file with the commission.
429.016. 1. The provisions of this section shall only apply to mechanic's liens asserted against residential real property, other than mechanic's liens for the repair, remodeling, or addition to owner-occupied residential property of four units or less which are governed by section 429.013 and other applicable sections of this chapter.
2. As used in this section, the term "residential real property" means any parcel of real estate, improved or unimproved, that is intended to be used or is used for the construction of residential structures and related improvements which support the residential use of the land where such residential structures are intended, upon completion, either to be occupied or sold by the current owner. Such residential structures shall include any residential dwelling of four units or less, whether or not a unit is occupied by an owner and shall also include any structures consisting solely of residential condominiums, townhouses or cooperatives regardless of the number of units. The definition of "residential real estate" shall exclude any mixed use or planned unit developments except to the extent that any residential uses of such developments are, or will be, located on separate, identifiable parcels from the non-residential uses and then only as to those residential uses. Residential real property shall also include any streets, sidewalks, utility services, improved common areas, or other facilities which are constructed within the defined residential use structures or located on or within the separate and identifiable parcels identified as for residential use.
3. Any person or entity, hereinafter referred to as claimant, who seeks to retain the right to assert a mechanic's lien against residential real property, hereinafter referred to as property, shall record a notice of rights in the office of the recorder of deeds for the county in which the property is located, not less than five calendar days prior to the intended date of closing stated in a notice of intended sale as contemplated in this section.
4. Notwithstanding subsection 3 of this section, a claimant that is accurately identified in any previously recorded notice of rights recorded as to the property is relieved of its duty to record a notice of rights.
5. If the last day to record the notice of rights falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday recognized by the state of Missouri, the notice of rights shall be recorded not later than the next day that the office of the recorder of deeds is open for business.
6. Any claimant that fails to record such notice of rights shall be deemed to waive and forfeit any right to assert a mechanic's lien against such property. Despite any such waiver and forfeiture of mechanic's lien rights, the claimant shall retain all other rights and remedies allowed by law to collect payment for its work, labor, and materials.
7. Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, a notice of rights recorded after the owner's conveyance of the property to a bona fide purchaser for value shall not be effective to preserve the claimant's mechanic's lien rights to the property.
8. The notice of rights shall comply with section 59.310 and be on a form substantially as follows:
NOTICE OF RIGHTS
Date: The date of the document.
Owner: Identify Property owner, as "Grantor" by correct name.
Claimant: Identify Claimant, as "Grantee" by correct name, current address, contact persons, and current telephone number.
Property: The legal description of the property.
Person Contracting with Claimant for Work: Identify person or entity contracting with Claimant by correct name, current address, and current telephone number.
Persons performing work for or supplying materials to Claimant: Claimant may, but is not obligated to, identify any persons or entities which have or will be performing work or supplying materials on behalf of Claimant for the Property. Said persons or entities must be identified by correct legal name, address, and current telephone number.
A recorded notice correctly identifies a person or entity so long as the identifying information in the notice is neither deceptively similar to another person or entity reasonably likely to provide labor, materials, supplies, or equipment for the improvement of property nor so deficient in information as to make it unreasonably difficult to identify such person or entity. The form shall be signed by a person authorized to execute the form on behalf of the claimant, and such signature shall be notarized. The name of the person signing the form shall be printed legibly or typed immediately below the signature.
9. The notice of rights shall be recorded by the claimant in the office of the recorder of deeds of the county in which the property is located.
10. The recorder of deeds shall record such notice of rights in the land records and index notice of rights such that owners shall be deemed grantors and claimants shall be deemed grantees, and the grantor's signature shall not be required for recording.
11. (1) If the record title owner of residential real property, hereinafter the owner, has contracted with a claimant for the performance or provision of work, labor, or materials for the improvement of such property in order to facilitate the owner's sale of such property to a bona fide purchaser for value as contemplated in this section, then the owner or such owner's designated agent, shall record a notice of intended sale in the office of the recorder of deeds for the county in which the property is located. The notice of intended sale shall be recorded not less than forty-five calendar days prior to the earliest calendar date the owner intends to close on the sale of such property to such purchaser. The notice of intended sale shall state the calendar date on which the owner intends to close on the sale of such property to such purchaser. Only one notice of intended sale shall be recorded, even if the intended date of closing stated therein is postponed to a date later than that stated in the notice of intended sale. The owner's, or its designated agent's, recording of a notice of intended sale as to the subject property, as contemplated herein, is a condition precedent to a claimant's obligation to record a notice of rights as to the subject property in order to retain a claimant's mechanics lien rights as to such property.
(2) The owner, or its designated agent, shall post on the subject property, or at an entrance to the subject property, or at any jobsite office located at or near the subject property, a copy of the owner's notice of intended sale.
(3) The owner, or its designated agent, shall provide any claimant with a copy of the notice of intended sale and a copy of a legal description of the subject property, within five calendar days after the date the owner, or its designated agent, receives a written request for the same from any such claimant. The information contemplated herein shall be transmitted by U.S. mail addressed to the claimant's registered agent or principal place of business or transmitted by other commercially reasonable means. A claimant shall, in turn, provide any person or entity with which it has contracted to perform or provide work, labor, or materials for the improvement of the subject property, with written notice in the same form and manner, and containing the same information, as the written notice issued by the owner, all within ten calendar days after the date the claimant receives a written request for the same from any such person or entity.
(4) If any owner, or its designated agent, fails to comply with the requirements of this section, a claimant shall be entitled to receive, as its sole and exclusive remedy for such failure to comply with the section, the claimant's actual and reasonable costs, excluding attorney fees, to obtain a legal description of the subject property necessary for the claimant to record its notice of rights. The costs described in this section shall be lienable expenses. The owner's, or its designated agent's failure to post or mail or transmit the information contemplated in this section, shall not relieve, and is not a condition precedent to, a claimant's obligation to record its notice of right in order to retain claimant's mechanic lien rights as to such property.
(5) The owner, or its designated agent, shall not be liable to any claimant, or other person, for any error, omission, or inaccuracy in the content of the information provided and disclosed by the owner, or its designated agent, except as otherwise expressly provided in this section. If a claimant receives a copy of the notice of intended sale and a legal description of the subject property from the owner, or its designated agent as contemplated in this section and the claimant relies in good faith upon the legal description and includes such legal description in a notice of rights as required in this section, and the claimant's notice of rights otherwise complies with the requirements of this section, then any such claimant's notice of rights shall be deemed to comply with the requirements of this section, and such claimant's right to assert a mechanic's lien as to the subject residential real property shall be retained even if subsequently it is determined that such legal description is in error or inaccurate as to the subject residential real property.
12. The recording of a notice of rights shall not extend the time for filing a mechanic's lien as provided under section 429.080.
13. A separate notice of rights shall be recorded for each lot or parcel of residential real property upon which the claimant performs its work. Nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit the claimant from providing a notice of rights covering multiple lots in the same subdivision if common ownership of lots exists. If the claimant commences its work prior to the platting or subdivision of a tract of land comprising residential real property, the claimant is only required to record one notice of rights provided that the entire tract of land upon which any such lien is to be asserted is described in such notice of rights.
14. The claimant shall not be required to provide the notice required under section 429.100, but compliance with the requirements of this section shall not relieve the claimant of its duty to comply with all other applicable sections of this chapter, except as specifically modified herein, in order to preserve, assert, and enforce its mechanic's lien rights.
15. For purposes of any mechanic's liens against residential real property only, a claimant satisfies the just and true account requirement contained in section 429.080 by providing the following information and documentation as part of its mechanic's lien claim filed with the clerk of the circuit court:
(1) A photocopy of the file-stamped notice of rights and any renewals of notice of rights recorded by or identifying claimant;
(2) The name and address of the person or entity which claimant contracted with to perform work on the property;
(3) A copy of any contract or contracts, purchase order or orders, or proposal or proposals, hereinafter collectively referred to as agreements, and any agreed change orders or modifications to such agreement or agreements under which claimant performed its work on the property;
(4) In the absence of any written agreement or agreements, a general description of the scope of work agreed to be performed by claimant on the property and the basis for payment for such work as agreed to by claimant and the contracting party;
(5) All invoices submitted by claimant for its work on the property;
(6) An accurate statement of account which shows all payments or credits against amounts otherwise due to claimant for the work performed on the property and the calculation or basis for the amount claimed by claimant in its mechanic's lien statement; and
(7) The last date that claimant performed any work or labor upon, or provided any materials or equipment to, the property;
(8) The claimant shall attach a file-stamped copy of his or her notice of rights to claimant's mechanic's lien statement if and when filed with the circuit clerk under section 429.080.
16. To the extent that any error in the information contained in the claimant's notice of rights prejudices the owner, any lender, disbursing company, title insurance company, or subsequent purchaser of the property, the claimant’s rights to assert a mechanic's lien shall be forfeited to the extent of the prejudice caused by such error.
17. A person having an interest in any residential real property against which a mechanic's lien has been filed may release such residential real property from any such mechanic's lien by:
(1) Depositing in the office of the circuit clerk a sum of money, in cash or certified check, an irrevocable letter of credit, which may be secured, issued by a federally or state chartered bank, savings and loan association or savings bank, referred to hereafter as a bank, authorized to and doing business in the state of Missouri, or a surety bond issued by a surety company authorized to do surety business in the state of Missouri and having a certificate of authority to do business with the United States government in accordance with 31 CFR Section 223.1, in an amount not less than one hundred fifty percent of the amount of the mechanic's lien being released; and
(2) Recording with the recorder of deeds and filing with the circuit clerk a certificate of deposit signed by the circuit clerk which provides the following information:
(a) Amount of money deposited, amount of the letter of credit deposited, or penal sum of the bond deposited, along with the name and address of the bank issuing the letter of credit or surety company issuing the bond, as well as a service address for the bank or surety company;
(b) Name of claimant, number assigned to the mechanic's lien being released, and the amount of the mechanic's lien being released;
(c) Legal description of the property against which the mechanic's lien was filed;
(d) Name, address, and property interest of the person making the deposit of money, providing the letter of credit or providing the surety bond; and
(e) A certification by the person making the deposit of money, providing the letter of credit, or providing the surety bond that they have mailed a copy of the certificate of deposit to the claimant at the address listed on the mechanic's lien being released, along with a copy of any letter of credit or bond deposited by said person.
18. Any surety bond deposited as substitute collateral shall obligate the surety company, to the extent of the penal sum of the bond, to pay any judgment entered under section 429.210.
19. Any letter of credit deposited as substitute collateral shall obligate the issuing bank, to the extent of the amount of the letter of credit, to pay any judgment entered under section 429.210.
20. Upon release of the residential real property from a mechanic's lien by the deposit of substitute collateral, the claimant's rights are transferred from the residential real property to the substitute collateral.
21. Upon determination of the amount of claimant's claim, if any, against the substitute collateral, the court shall either:
(1) Order the circuit clerk to pay the claimant any sums awarded out of the deposited funds and release any remainder to the person or entity who made the cash deposit;
(2) Order the bank to issue payment under the letter of credit for the awarded amount but not exceeding the amount of the letter of credit;
(3) Render judgment against the surety company on the bond for the amount awarded up to but not exceeding the penal sum of the bond; or
(4) Release the substitute collateral
all as deemed appropriate by the court.
22. The deposit of substitute collateral and release of claimant's mechanic's lien shall not modify any aspect of the priority of claimant's interest, claimant's burden of proving compliance with the mechanic's lien statutes, or claimant's obligations with respect to enforcement of its mechanic's lien claim, including, but not limited to, time for filing suit to enforce and necessary parties to the suit to enforce. It is the intent only that the deposited substitute collateral shall be the ultimate source of any potential recovery by claimant instead of the funds generated by foreclosure of the residential real property.
23. A release of a mechanic's lien under the deposit of substitute collateral shall not relieve any claimant of potential liability for slander of title or otherwise due to the filing of claimant's mechanic's lien.
24. The surety company for any bond or the bank which issued the letter of credit deposited under this section shall be made a party to any mechanic's lien enforcement action with respect to any mechanic's lien released by the deposit of said bond or letter of credit.
25. Any claimant may waive its right to assert a mechanic's lien against residential real property by executing a partial or full waiver of mechanic's lien rights, whether conditioned upon receipt of payment or unconditional, provided that a waiver of mechanic's lien rights shall not be deemed or interpreted to waive or release mechanic's lien rights in exchange for a payment of less than the amount claimed due at that time unless such mechanic's lien waiver is an unconditional, final mechanic's lien waiver in compliance with this section.
26. An unconditional, final lien waiver is a complete and absolute waiver of any mechanic's lien rights against the residential real property described in the mechanic's lien waiver, including any rights which might otherwise arise from remedial or additional labor, services, or materials provided to the residential real property, or which might benefit the residential real property, under either an initial agreement or a supplemental agreement entered into by the same parties prior to the execution of the unconditional, final mechanic's lien waiver.
27. An unconditional, final mechanic's lien waiver shall only be valid if it is on a form that is substantially as follows:
UNCONDITIONAL FINAL LIEN WAIVER FOR RESIDENTIAL REAL PROPERTY
Claimant (provide legal name and address of Claimant) hereby fully, finally, and unconditionally waives and releases any right to assert or enforce a mechanic's lien claim against the residential real property identified below for all work performed by Claimant prior to the date set forth below and for any work hereafter performed by or on behalf of Claimant under any agreements executed by Claimant prior to said date set forth below:
(Provide legal description of the Property)
Claimant's legal name and the name, title or position, address, and telephone number of the person executing the unconditional final lien waiver on behalf of claimant shall be typed or legibly printed immediately above or below the signature, and the date that the document was signed shall be typed or legibly printed immediately adjacent to the signature.
28. A claimant executing an unconditional, final mechanic's lien waiver for less than full consideration shall be bound by such mechanic's lien waiver as it relates to any rights to assert a mechanic's lien against the property, but such mechanic's lien waiver shall not constitute a waiver or release of any other claim, remedy, or cause of action.
29. An unconditional, final mechanic's lien waiver meeting the requirements of this section is valid and enforceable as to claimant's mechanic's lien rights as to the property identified on the unconditional, final mechanic's lien waiver notwithstanding claimant's failure to receive any promised payment or other consideration.
30. Any claimant who has recorded a notice of rights and who has been paid in full for the work performed on the property shall timely execute an unconditional, final mechanic's lien waiver, shall not unreasonably withhold such a waiver when circumstances require prompt execution, and in no event shall fail to provide a waiver any later than five calendar days after claimant's receipt of a written request to do so by any person or entity. A claimant who fails or refuses timely to execute an unconditional, final lien waiver when such claimant has been paid in full for any labor, materials, services, or equipment supplied or used in the improvement to the property shall be presumed liable for slander of title and for any damages sustained as a result thereof, together with a statutory penalty of five hundred dollars.
31. The provisions of this section shall apply to any residential real property conveyance closing on or after November 1, 2010.
441.645. If a residence is destroyed by an act of God, including but not limited to fire or a tornado, or other natural disaster or man-made disaster, so long as the tenant was not the person who caused the disaster, the tenant shall not be liable to the landlord for rent during the remainder of the term of the lease agreement.
452.340. 1. In a proceeding for dissolution of marriage, legal separation or child support, the court may order either or both parents owing a duty of support to a child of the marriage to pay an amount reasonable or necessary for the support of the child, including an award retroactive to the date of filing the petition, without regard to marital misconduct, after considering all relevant factors including:
(1) The financial needs and resources of the child;
(2) The financial resources and needs of the parents;
(3) The standard of living the child would have enjoyed had the marriage not been dissolved;
(4) The physical and emotional condition of the child, and the child's educational needs;
(5) The child's physical and legal custody arrangements, including the amount of time the child spends with each parent and the reasonable expenses associated with the custody or visitation arrangements; and
(6) The reasonable work-related child care expenses of each parent.
2. The obligation of the parent ordered to make support payments shall abate, in whole or in part, for such periods of time in excess of thirty consecutive days that the other parent has voluntarily relinquished physical custody of a child to the parent ordered to pay child support, notwithstanding any periods of visitation or temporary physical and legal or physical or legal custody pursuant to a judgment of dissolution or legal separation or any modification thereof. In a IV-D case, the family support division may determine the amount of the abatement pursuant to this subsection for any child support order and shall record the amount of abatement in the automated child support system record established pursuant to chapter 454, RSMo. If the case is not a IV-D case and upon court order, the circuit clerk shall record the amount of abatement in the automated child support system record established in chapter 454, RSMo.
3. Unless the circumstances of the child manifestly dictate otherwise and the court specifically so provides, the obligation of a parent to make child support payments shall terminate when the child:
(1) Dies;
(2) Marries;
(3) Enters active duty in the military;
(4) Becomes self-supporting, provided that the custodial parent has relinquished the child from parental control by express or implied consent;
(5) Reaches age eighteen, unless the provisions of subsection 4 or 5 of this section apply; or
(6) Reaches age twenty-one, unless the provisions of the child support order specifically extend the parental support order past the child's twenty-first birthday for reasons provided by subsection 4 of this section.
4. If the child is physically or mentally incapacitated from supporting himself and insolvent and unmarried, the court may extend the parental support obligation past the child's eighteenth birthday.
5. If when a child reaches age eighteen, the child is enrolled in and attending a secondary school program of instruction, the parental support obligation shall continue, if the child continues to attend and progresses toward completion of said program, until the child completes such program or reaches age twenty-one, whichever first occurs. If the child is enrolled in an institution of vocational or higher education not later than October first following graduation from a secondary school or completion of a graduation equivalence degree program and so long as the child enrolls for and completes at least twelve hours of credit each semester, not including the summer semester, at an institution of vocational or higher education and achieves grades sufficient to reenroll at such institution, the parental support obligation shall continue until the child completes his or her education, or until the child reaches the age of twenty-one, whichever first occurs. To remain eligible for such continued parental support, at the beginning of each semester the child shall submit to each parent a transcript or similar official document provided by the institution of vocational or higher education which includes the courses the child is enrolled in and has completed for each term, the grades and credits received for each such course, and an official document from the institution listing the courses which the child is enrolled in for the upcoming term and the number of credits for each such course. When enrolled in at least twelve credit hours, if the child receives failing grades in half or more of his or her courseload in any one semester, payment of child support may be terminated and shall not be eligible for reinstatement. Upon request for notification of the child's grades by the noncustodial parent, the child shall produce the required documents to the noncustodial parent within thirty days of receipt of grades from the education institution. If the child fails to produce the required documents, payment of child support may terminate without the accrual of any child support arrearage and shall not be eligible for reinstatement. If the circumstances of the child manifestly dictate, the court may waive the October first deadline for enrollment required by this subsection. If the child is enrolled in such an institution, the child or parent obligated to pay support may petition the court to amend the order to direct the obligated parent to make the payments directly to the child. As used in this section, an "institution of vocational education" means any postsecondary training or schooling for which the student is assessed a fee and attends classes regularly. "Higher education" means any community college, college, or university at which the child attends classes regularly. A child who has been diagnosed with a developmental disability, as defined in section 630.005, RSMo, or whose physical disability or diagnosed health problem limits the child's ability to carry the number of credit hours prescribed in this subsection, shall remain eligible for child support so long as such child is enrolled in and attending an institution of vocational or higher education, and the child continues to meet the other requirements of this subsection. A child who is employed at least fifteen hours per week during the semester may take as few as nine credit hours per semester and remain eligible for child support so long as all other requirements of this subsection are complied with.
6. The court shall consider ordering a parent to waive the right to claim the tax dependency exemption for a child enrolled in an institution of vocational or higher education in favor of the other parent if the application of state and federal tax laws and eligibility for financial aid will make an award of the exemption to the other parent appropriate.
7. The general assembly finds and declares that it is the public policy of this state that frequent, continuing and meaningful contact with both parents after the parents have separated or dissolved their marriage is in the best interest of the child except for cases where the court specifically finds that such contact is not in the best interest of the child. In order to effectuate this public policy, a court with jurisdiction shall enforce visitation, custody and child support orders in the same manner. A court with jurisdiction may abate, in whole or in part, any past or future obligation of support and may transfer the physical and legal or physical or legal custody of one or more children if it finds that a parent has, without good cause, failed to provide visitation or physical and legal or physical or legal custody to the other parent pursuant to the terms of a judgment of dissolution, legal separation or modifications thereof. The court shall also award, if requested and for good cause shown, reasonable expenses, attorney's fees and court costs incurred by the prevailing party.
8. The Missouri supreme court shall have in effect a rule establishing guidelines by which any award of child support shall be made in any judicial or administrative proceeding. Said guidelines shall contain specific, descriptive and numeric criteria which will result in a computation of the support obligation. The guidelines shall address how the amount of child support shall be calculated when an award of joint physical custody results in the child or children spending substantially equal time with both parents. The Missouri supreme court shall publish child support guidelines and specifically list and explain the relevant factors and assumptions that were used to calculate the child support guidelines. Any rule made pursuant to this subsection shall be reviewed by the promulgating body not less than once every four years to ensure that its application results in the determination of appropriate child support award amounts.
9. There shall be a rebuttable presumption, in any judicial or administrative proceeding for the award of child support, that the amount of the award which would result from the application of the guidelines established pursuant to subsection 8 of this section is the correct amount of child support to be awarded. A written finding or specific finding on the record in a judicial or administrative proceeding that the application of the guidelines would be unjust or inappropriate in a particular case, after considering all relevant factors, including the factors set out in subsection 1 of this section, is required if requested by a party and shall be sufficient to rebut the presumption in the case. The written finding or specific finding on the record shall detail the specific relevant factors that required a deviation from the application of the guidelines.
10. Pursuant to this or any other chapter, when a court determines the amount owed by a parent for support provided to a child by another person, other than a parent, prior to the date of filing of a petition requesting support, or when the director of the family support division establishes the amount of state debt due pursuant to subdivision (2) of subsection 1 of section 454.465, RSMo, the court or director shall use the guidelines established pursuant to subsection 8 of this section. The amount of child support resulting from the application of the guidelines shall be applied retroactively for a period prior to the establishment of a support order and the length of the period of retroactivity shall be left to the discretion of the court or director. There shall be a rebuttable presumption that the amount resulting from application of the guidelines under subsection 8 of this section constitutes the amount owed by the parent for the period prior to the date of the filing of the petition for support or the period for which state debt is being established. In applying the guidelines to determine a retroactive support amount, when information as to average monthly income is available, the court or director may use the average monthly income of the noncustodial parent, as averaged over the period of retroactivity, in determining the amount of presumed child support owed for the period of retroactivity. The court or director may enter a different amount in a particular case upon finding, after consideration of all relevant factors, including the factors set out in subsection 1 of this section, that there is sufficient cause to rebut the presumed amount.
11. The obligation of a parent to make child support payments may be terminated as follows:
(1) Provided that the state case registry or child support order contains the child's date of birth, the obligation shall be deemed terminated without further judicial or administrative process when the child reaches age twenty-one if the child support order does not specifically require payment of child support beyond age twenty-one for reasons provided by subsection 4 of this section;
(2) The obligation shall be deemed terminated without further judicial or administrative process when the parent receiving child support furnishes a sworn statement or affidavit notifying the obligor parent of the child's emancipation in accordance with the requirements of subsection 4 of section 452.370, and a copy of such sworn statement or affidavit is filed with the court which entered the order establishing the child support obligation, or the family support division [of child support enforcement] for an order entered under section 454.470;
(3) The obligation shall be deemed terminated without further judicial or administrative process when the parent paying child support files a sworn statement or affidavit with the court which entered the order establishing the child support obligation, or the family support division for an order entered under section 454.470, stating that the child is emancipated and reciting the factual basis for such statement; which statement or affidavit is served by the court or division, as applicable, on the child support obligee; and which is either acknowledged and affirmed by the child support obligee in writing, or which is not responded to in writing within thirty days of receipt by the child support obligee;
(4) The obligation shall be terminated as provided by this subdivision by the court which entered the order establishing the child support obligation, or the family support division for an order entered under section 454.470, when the parent paying child support files a sworn statement or affidavit with the court which entered the order establishing the child support obligation, or the family support division, as applicable, stating that the child is emancipated and reciting the factual basis for such statement; and which statement or affidavit is served by the court or division, as applicable, on the child support obligee. If the obligee denies the statement or affidavit, the court or division shall thereupon treat the sworn statement or affidavit as a [motion to modify the support obligation pursuant to section 452.370 or section 454.496, RSMo,] request for hearing and shall proceed to hear and adjudicate such [motion] request for hearing as provided by law; provided that the court may require the payment of a deposit as security for court costs and any accrued court costs, as provided by law, in relation to such [motion to modify] request for hearing. When the division receives a request for hearing, the hearing shall be held in the manner provided by section 454.475.
12. The court may enter a judgment terminating child support pursuant to subdivisions (1) to (3) of subsection 11 of this section without necessity of a court appearance by either party. The clerk of the court shall mail a copy of a judgment terminating child support entered pursuant to subsection 11 of this section on both the obligor and obligee parents. The supreme court may promulgate uniform forms for sworn statements and affidavits to terminate orders of child support obligations for use pursuant to subsection 11 of this section and subsection 4 of section 452.370.
452.430. All pleadings and filings in a dissolution of marriage, legal separation, or modification proceeding, filed more than seventy-two years prior to the time a request for inspection is made may be made available to the public. Any pleadings, other than the interlocutory or final judgment or any modification thereof, in a dissolution of marriage [or] , legal separation, or modification proceeding filed prior to August 28, 2009, but less than seventy-two years prior to the time a request for inspection is made, shall be subject to inspection only by the parties [or] , an attorney of record [or upon order of the court for good cause shown, or by] , the family support division within the department of social services when services are being provided under section 454.400, [RSMo.] the attorney general or his or her designee, a person or designee of a person licensed and acting under chapter 381 who shall keep any information obtained confidential, except as necessary to the performance of functions required by chapter 381, or upon order of the court for good cause shown. Such persons may receive or make copies of documents without the clerk being required to redact the Social Security number, unless the court specifically orders the clerk to do otherwise. The clerk shall redact the Social Security number from any copy of a judgment [or pleading] or satisfaction of judgment before releasing the copy of the interlocutory or final judgment or satisfaction of judgment to the public.
454.475. 1. Hearings provided for in this section shall be conducted pursuant to chapter 536, RSMo, by administrative hearing officers designated by the Missouri department of social services. The hearing officer shall provide the parents, the person having custody of the child, or other appropriate agencies or their attorneys with notice of any proceeding in which support obligations may be established or modified. The department shall not be stayed from enforcing and collecting upon the administrative order during the hearing process and during any appeal to the courts of this state, unless specifically enjoined by court order.
2. If no factual issue has been raised by the application for hearing, or the issues raised have been previously litigated or do not constitute a defense to the action, the director may enter an order without an evidentiary hearing, which order shall be a final decision entitled to judicial review as provided in sections 536.100 to 536.140, RSMo.
3. After full and fair hearing, the hearing officer shall make specific findings regarding the liability and responsibility, if any, of the alleged responsible parent for the support of the dependent child, and for repayment of accrued state debt or arrearages, and the costs of collection, and shall enter an order consistent therewith. In making the determination of the amount the parent shall contribute toward the future support of a dependent child, the hearing officer shall [use the scale and formula for minimum support obligations established by the department pursuant to section 454.480] consider the factors set forth in section 452.340.
4. If the person who requests the hearing fails to appear at the time and place set for the hearing, upon a showing of proper notice to that parent, the hearing officer shall enter findings and order in accordance with the provisions of the notice and finding of support responsibility unless the hearing officer determines that no good cause therefor exists.
5. In contested cases, the findings and order of the hearing officer shall be the decision of the director. Any parent or person having custody of the child adversely affected by such decision may obtain judicial review pursuant to sections 536.100 to 536.140, RSMo, by filing a petition for review in the circuit court of proper venue within thirty days of mailing of the decision. Copies of the decision or order of the hearing officer shall be mailed to any parent, person having custody of the child and the division within fourteen days of issuance.
6. If a hearing has been requested, and upon request of a parent, a person having custody of the child, the division or a IV-D agency, the director shall enter a temporary order requiring the provision of child support pending the final decision or order pursuant to this section if there is clear and convincing evidence establishing a presumption of paternity pursuant to section 210.822, RSMo. In determining the amount of child support, the director shall consider the factors set forth in section 452.340, RSMo. The temporary order, effective upon filing pursuant to section 454.490, is not subject to a hearing pursuant to this section. The temporary order may be stayed by a court of competent jurisdiction only after a hearing and a finding by the court that the order fails to comply with rule 88.01.
454.517. 1. The director, IV-D agency or the obligee may cause a lien for unpaid and delinquent child or spousal support to be placed upon any workers' compensation benefits payable to an obligor delinquent in child or spousal support payments.
2. No such lien shall be effective unless and until a written notice is filed with the director of the division of workers' compensation. The notice shall contain the name and address of the delinquent obligor, the Social Security number of the obligor, if known, the name of the obligee, and the amount of delinquent child or spousal support.
3. Notice of lien shall not be filed unless the delinquent child or spousal support obligation exceeds one hundred dollars.
4. Any person or persons, firm or firms, corporation or corporations, including an insurance carrier, making any payment of workers' compensation benefits to such obligor or to such obligor's attorneys, heirs or legal representative, after receipt of such notice, as defined in subsection 5 of this section, shall be liable to the obligee or, if support has been assigned pursuant to subsection 2 of section 208.040, RSMo, to the state or IV-D agency in an amount equal to the lesser of the workers' compensation benefits paid or delinquent child or spousal support. In such event, the lien may be enforced by a suit at law against any person or persons, firm or firms, corporation or corporations making the workers' compensation benefit payment.
5. Upon the filing of a notice pursuant to this section, the director of the division of workers' compensation shall mail to the obligor and to all attorneys and insurance carriers of record, a copy of the notice. The obligor, attorneys and insurance carriers shall be deemed to have received the notice within five days of the mailing of the notice by the director of the division of workers' compensation. The lien described in this section shall attach to all workers' compensation benefits which are thereafter payable.
6. A notice issued by the IV-D agency of this state shall advise the obligor of the procedures to contest the lien under section 454.475 on the grounds that such lien is improper due to a mistake of fact by requesting a hearing within thirty days of the mailing date of the notice. At such a hearing the certified copy of the court order and the sworn or certified statement of arrearages shall constitute prima facie evidence that the director's order is valid and enforceable. If a prima facie case is established, the obligor may only assert mistake of fact as a defense. For purposes of this section, "mistake of fact" means an error in the amount of the overdue support or an error as to the identity of the obligor. The obligor shall have the burden of proof on such issues.
7. In cases which are not IV-D cases, to cause a lien pursuant to the provisions of this section the obligee or the obligor's attorney shall file notice of the lien with the lienholder or payor. This notice shall have attached a certified copy of the court order with all modifications and a sworn statement by the obligee or a certified statement from the court attesting to or certifying the amount of arrearages.
454.557. 1. A current support obligation shall not be recorded in the records maintained in the automated child support system in the following cases:
(1) In a IV-D case with a support order pursuant to section 454.465 or 454.470 when the division determines that payments for current support are no longer due and should no longer be made to the payment center. The division shall notify by first class mail the obligor and obligee under the support orders that payments shall no longer be made to the payment center, and any withholding of income shall be terminated unless it is subsequently determined by the division or court having jurisdiction that payments will continue. The division's determination shall terminate the division's support order, but shall not terminate any obligation of support established by court order. The obligor and obligee may contest the decision of the division to terminate the division's support order by requesting a hearing within thirty days of the mailing of the notice provided pursuant to this section. The hearing shall comply with the provisions of section 454.475;
(2) In [a IV-D case] all cases with a support order entered by a court when the court that issued the support order terminates such order [and notifies the division]. The division shall also cease enforcing the order if no past support is due; or
(3) In all cases when the [child is twenty-two years of age, unless a court orders support to continue. The obligor or obligee may contest the decision of the division to terminate accruing support orders by requesting a hearing within thirty days of the mailing of notice by the division. The hearing shall comply with the provisions of section 454.475. The issue at the hearing, if any, shall be limited to a mistake of fact as to the age of the child or the existence of a court order requiring support after the age of twenty-two] obligation of a parent to make child support payments is deemed terminated under subdivisions (1) to (4) of subsection 11 of section 452.340.
2. Nothing in this section shall affect or terminate the amount due for unpaid past support.
454.1003. 1. A court or the director of the division of child support enforcement may issue an order, or in the case of a business, professional or occupational license, only a court may issue an order, suspending an obligor's license and ordering the obligor to refrain from engaging in a licensed activity in the following cases:
(1) When the obligor is not making child support payments in accordance with a [court] support order and owes an arrearage in an amount greater than or equal to three months support payments or two thousand five hundred dollars, whichever is less, as of the date of service of a notice of intent to suspend such license; or
(2) When the obligor or any other person, after receiving appropriate notice, fails to comply with a subpoena of a court or the director concerning actions relating to the establishment of paternity, or to the establishment, modification or enforcement of support orders, or order of the director for genetic testing.
2. In any case but a IV-D case, upon the petition of an obligee alleging the existence of an arrearage, a court with jurisdiction over the support order may issue a notice of intent to suspend a license. In a IV-D case, the director, or a court at the request of the director, may issue a notice of intent to suspend.
3. The notice of intent to suspend a license shall be served on the obligor personally or by certified mail. If the proposed suspension of license is based on the obligor's support arrearage, the notice shall state that the obligor's license shall be suspended sixty days after service unless, within such time, the obligor:
(1) Pays the entire arrearage stated in the notice;
(2) Enters into and complies with a payment plan approved by the court or the division; or
(3) Requests a hearing before the court or the director.
4. In a IV-D case, the notice shall advise the obligor that hearings are subject to the contested case provisions of chapter 536, RSMo.
5. If the proposed suspension of license is based on the alleged failure to comply with a subpoena relating to paternity or a child support proceeding, or order of the director for genetic testing, the notice of intent to suspend shall inform the person that such person's license shall be suspended sixty days after service, unless the person complies with the subpoena or order.
6. If the obligor fails to comply with the terms of repayment agreement, a court or the division may issue a notice of intent to suspend the obligor's license.
7. In addition to the actions to suspend or withhold licenses pursuant to this chapter, a court or the director of the division of child support enforcement may restrict such licenses in accordance with the provisions of this chapter.
488.429. 1. Moneys collected pursuant to section 488.426 shall be payable to the judges of the circuit court, en banc, of the county from which such surcharges were collected, or to such person as is designated by local circuit court rule as treasurer of said fund, and said fund may be applied and expended under the direction and order of the judges of the circuit court, en banc, of any such county for the maintenance and upkeep of the law library maintained by the bar association in any such county, or such other law library in any such county as may be designated by the judges of the circuit court, en banc, of any such county; provided, that the judges of the circuit court, en banc, of any such county, and the officers of all courts of record of any such county, shall be entitled at all reasonable times to use the library to the support of which said funds are applied.
2. In addition, such fund may also be applied and expended for that county's or circuit's family services and justice fund.
3. In any county[, other than a county on the nonpartisan court plan,] such fund may also be applied and expended for courtroom renovation and technology enhancement, or for debt service on county bonds for such renovation or enhancement projects.
493.055. All public advertisements and orders of publication required by law to be made, including but not limited to amendments to the Missouri Constitution, legal publications affecting all sales of real estate under a power of sale contained in any mortgage or deed of trust, and other legal publications affecting the title to real estate, shall be published in a newspaper of general circulation, qualified under the provisions of section 493.050, and persons responsible for orders of publication described in sections 443.310 and 443.320, shall be subject to the prohibitions in sections 493.130 and 493.140.
537.296. [In any action for private nuisance where the amount in controversy exceeds one million dollars,] If any party requests the court or jury [to] visit the property alleged to be affected by the nuisance in an action for private nuisance where the amount in controversy exceeds one million dollars, the court or jury shall visit the property.
563.011. As used in this chapter the following terms shall mean:
(1) "Deadly force", physical force which the actor uses with the purpose of causing or which he or she knows to create a substantial risk of causing death or serious physical injury;
(2) "Dwelling", any building, inhabitable structure, or conveyance of any kind, whether the building, inhabitable structure, or conveyance is temporary or permanent, mobile or immobile, which has a roof over it, including a tent, and is designed to be occupied by people lodging therein at night;
(3) "Forcible felony", any felony involving the use or threat of physical force or violence against any individual, including but not limited to murder, robbery, burglary, arson, kidnapping, assault, and any forcible sexual offense;
(4) "Premises", includes any building, inhabitable structure and any real property;
(5) "Private person", any person other than a law enforcement officer;
(6) "Private property", any real property in this state that is privately owned or leased;
(7) "Remain after unlawfully entering", to remain in or upon premises after unlawfully entering as defined in this section;
[(7)] (8) "Residence", a dwelling in which a person resides either temporarily or permanently or is visiting as an invited guest;
[(8)] (9) "Unlawfully enter", a person unlawfully enters in or upon premises or private property when he or she enters such premises or private property and is not licensed or privileged to do so. A person who, regardless of his or her purpose, enters in or upon private property or premises that are at the time open to the public does so with license unless he or she defies a lawful order not to enter, personally communicated to him or her by the owner of such premises or by another authorized person. A license to enter in a building that is only partly open to the public is not a license to enter in that part of the building that is not open to the public.
563.031. 1. A person may, subject to the provisions of subsection 2 of this section, use physical force upon another person when and to the extent he or she reasonably believes such force to be necessary to defend himself or herself or a third person from what he or she reasonably believes to be the use or imminent use of unlawful force by such other person, unless:
(1) The actor was the initial aggressor; except that in such case his or her use of force is nevertheless justifiable provided:
(a) He or she has withdrawn from the encounter and effectively communicated such withdrawal to such other person but the latter persists in continuing the incident by the use or threatened use of unlawful force; or
(b) He or she is a law enforcement officer and as such is an aggressor pursuant to section 563.046; or
(c) The aggressor is justified under some other provision of this chapter or other provision of law;
(2) Under the circumstances as the actor reasonably believes them to be, the person whom he or she seeks to protect would not be justified in using such protective force;
(3) The actor was attempting to commit, committing, or escaping after the commission of a forcible felony.
2. A person may not use deadly force upon another person under the circumstances specified in subsection 1 of this section unless:
(1) He or she reasonably believes that such deadly force is necessary to protect himself or herself or another against death, serious physical injury, or any forcible felony; [or]
(2) Such force is used against a person who unlawfully enters, remains after unlawfully entering, or attempts to unlawfully enter a dwelling, residence, or vehicle lawfully occupied by such person; or
(3) Such force is used against a person who unlawfully enters, remains after unlawfully entering, or attempts to unlawfully enter private property that is owned or leased by an individual claiming a justification of using protective force under this section.
3. A person does not have a duty to retreat from a dwelling, residence, or vehicle where the person is not unlawfully entering or unlawfully remaining. A person does not have a duty to retreat from private property that is owned or leased by such individual.
4. The justification afforded by this section extends to the use of physical restraint as protective force provided that the actor takes all reasonable measures to terminate the restraint as soon as it is reasonable to do so.
5. The defendant shall have the burden of injecting the issue of justification under this section. If a defendant asserts that his or her use of force is described under subdivision (2) of subsection 2 of this section, the burden shall then be on the state to prove beyond a reasonable doubt that the defendant did not reasonably believe that the use of such force was necessary to defend against what he or she reasonably believed was the use or imminent use of unlawful force.
571.030. 1. A person commits the crime of unlawful use of weapons if he or she knowingly:
(1) Carries concealed upon or about his or her person a knife, a firearm, a blackjack or any other weapon readily capable of lethal use; or
(2) Sets a spring gun; or
(3) Discharges or shoots a firearm into a dwelling house, a railroad train, boat, aircraft, or motor vehicle as defined in section 302.010, RSMo, or any building or structure used for the assembling of people; or
(4) Exhibits, in the presence of one or more persons, any weapon readily capable of lethal use in an angry or threatening manner; or
(5) [Possesses or discharges a firearm or projectile weapon while intoxicated] Has a firearm or projectile weapon readily capable of lethal use on his or her person, while he or she is intoxicated, and handles or otherwise uses such firearm or projectile weapon in either a negligent or unlawful manner or discharges such firearm or projectile weapon unless acting in self-defense;
(6) Discharges a firearm within one hundred yards of any occupied schoolhouse, courthouse, or church building; or
(7) Discharges or shoots a firearm at a mark, at any object, or at random, on, along or across a public highway or discharges or shoots a firearm into any outbuilding; or
(8) Carries a firearm or any other weapon readily capable of lethal use into any church or place where people have assembled for worship, or into any election precinct on any election day, or into any building owned or occupied by any agency of the federal government, state government, or political subdivision thereof; or
(9) Discharges or shoots a firearm at or from a motor vehicle, as defined in section 301.010, RSMo, discharges or shoots a firearm at any person, or at any other motor vehicle, or at any building or habitable structure, unless the person was lawfully acting in self-defense; or
(10) Carries a firearm, whether loaded or unloaded, or any other weapon readily capable of lethal use into any school, onto any school bus, or onto the premises of any function or activity sponsored or sanctioned by school officials or the district school board.
2. Subdivisions (1), (3), (4), (6), (7), (8), (9) and (10) of subsection 1 of this section shall not apply to or affect any of the following when such uses are reasonably associated with or are necessary to the fulfillment of such person's official duties:
(1) All state, county and municipal peace officers who have completed the training required by the police officer standards and training commission pursuant to sections 590.030 to 590.050, RSMo, and [possessing] who possess the duty and power of arrest for violation of the general criminal laws of the state or for violation of ordinances of counties or municipalities of the state, whether such officers are on or off duty, and whether such officers are within or outside of the law enforcement agency's jurisdiction, or all qualified retired peace officers, as defined in subsection 10 of this section, and who carry the identification defined in subsection 11 of this section, or any person summoned by such officers to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace while actually engaged in assisting such officer;
(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of crime;
(3) Members of the armed forces or national guard while performing their official duty;
(4) Those persons vested by article V, section 1 of the Constitution of Missouri with the judicial power of the state and those persons vested by Article III of the Constitution of the United States with the judicial power of the United States, the members of the federal judiciary;
(5) Any person whose bona fide duty is to execute process, civil or criminal;
(6) Any federal probation officer or federal flight deck officer as defined under the federal flight deck officer program, 49 U.S.C. Section 44921;
(7) Any state probation or parole officer, including supervisors and members of the board of probation and parole;
(8) Any corporate security advisor meeting the definition and fulfilling the requirements of the regulations established by the board of police commissioners under section 84.340, RSMo; [and]
(9) Any coroner, deputy coroner, medical examiner, or assistant medical examiner; and
(10) Any prosecuting attorney or assistant prosecuting attorney or any circuit attorney or assistant circuit attorney who has completed the firearms safety training course required under subsection 2 of section 571.111.
3. Subdivisions (1), (5), (8), and (10) of subsection 1 of this section do not apply when the actor is transporting such weapons in a nonfunctioning state or in an unloaded state when ammunition is not readily accessible or when such weapons are not readily accessible. Subdivision (1) of subsection 1 of this section does not apply to any person twenty-one years of age or older transporting a concealable firearm in the passenger compartment of a motor vehicle, so long as such concealable firearm is otherwise lawfully possessed, nor when the actor is also in possession of an exposed firearm or projectile weapon for the lawful pursuit of game, or is in his or her dwelling unit or upon premises over which the actor has possession, authority or control, or is traveling in a continuous journey peaceably through this state. Subdivision (10) of subsection 1 of this section does not apply if the firearm is otherwise lawfully possessed by a person while traversing school premises for the purposes of transporting a student to or from school, or possessed by an adult for the purposes of facilitation of a school-sanctioned firearm-related event.
4. Subdivisions (1), (8), and (10) of subsection 1 of this section shall not apply to any person who has a valid concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 or a valid permit or endorsement to carry concealed firearms issued by another state or political subdivision of another state.
5. Subdivisions (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), and (10) of subsection 1 of this section shall not apply to persons who are engaged in a lawful act of defense pursuant to section 563.031, RSMo.
6. Nothing in this section shall make it unlawful for a student to actually participate in school-sanctioned gun safety courses, student military or ROTC courses, or other school-sponsored firearm-related events, provided the student does not carry a firearm or other weapon readily capable of lethal use into any school, onto any school bus, or onto the premises of any other function or activity sponsored or sanctioned by school officials or the district school board.
7. Unlawful use of weapons is a class D felony unless committed pursuant to subdivision (6), (7), or (8) of subsection 1 of this section, in which cases it is a class B misdemeanor, or subdivision (5) or (10) of subsection 1 of this section, in which case it is a class A misdemeanor if the firearm is unloaded and a class D felony if the firearm is loaded, or subdivision (9) of subsection 1 of this section, in which case it is a class B felony, except that if the violation of subdivision (9) of subsection 1 of this section results in injury or death to another person, it is a class A felony.
8. Violations of subdivision (9) of subsection 1 of this section shall be punished as follows:
(1) For the first violation a person shall be sentenced to the maximum authorized term of imprisonment for a class B felony;
(2) For any violation by a prior offender as defined in section 558.016, RSMo, a person shall be sentenced to the maximum authorized term of imprisonment for a class B felony without the possibility of parole, probation or conditional release for a term of ten years;
(3) For any violation by a persistent offender as defined in section 558.016, RSMo, a person shall be sentenced to the maximum authorized term of imprisonment for a class B felony without the possibility of parole, probation, or conditional release;
(4) For any violation which results in injury or death to another person, a person shall be sentenced to an authorized disposition for a class A felony.
9. Any person knowingly aiding or abetting any other person in the violation of subdivision (9) of subsection 1 of this section shall be subject to the same penalty as that prescribed by this section for violations by other persons.
10. As used in this section "qualified retired peace officer" means an individual who:
(1) Retired in good standing from service with a public agency as a peace officer, other than for reasons of mental instability;
(2) Before such retirement, was authorized by law to engage in or supervise the prevention, detection, investigation, or prosecution of, or the incarceration of any person for, any violation of law, and had statutory powers of arrest;
(3) Before such retirement, was regularly employed as a peace officer for an aggregate of fifteen years or more, or retired from service with such agency, after completing any applicable probationary period of such service, due to a service-connected disability, as determined by such agency;
(4) Has a nonforfeitable right to benefits under the retirement plan of the agency if such a plan is available;
(5) During the most recent twelve-month period, has met, at the expense of the individual, the standards for training and qualification for active peace officers to carry firearms;
(6) Is not under the influence of alcohol or another intoxicating or hallucinatory drug or substance; and
(7) Is not prohibited by federal law from receiving a firearm.
11. The identification required by subdivision (1) of subsection 2 of this section is:
(1) A photographic identification issued by the agency from which the individual retired from service as a peace officer that indicates that the individual has, not less recently than one year before the date the individual is carrying the concealed firearm, been tested or otherwise found by the agency to meet the standards established by the agency for training and qualification for active peace officers to carry a firearm of the same type as the concealed firearm; or
(2) A photographic identification issued by the agency from which the individual retired from service as a peace officer; and
(3) A certification issued by the state in which the individual resides that indicates that the individual has, not less recently than one year before the date the individual is carrying the concealed firearm, been tested or otherwise found by the state to meet the standards established by the state for training and qualification for active peace officers to carry a firearm of the same type as the concealed firearm.
571.070. 1. A person commits the crime of unlawful possession of a firearm if such person knowingly has any firearm in his or her possession and:
(1) Such person has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this state, or of a crime under the laws of any state or of the United States which, if committed within this state, would be a felony; or
(2) Such person is a fugitive from justice, is habitually in an intoxicated or drugged condition, or is currently adjudged mentally incompetent.
2. Unlawful possession of a firearm is a class C felony.
3. The provisions of subdivision (1) of subsection 1 of this section shall not apply to the possession of an antique firearm.
571.104. 1. (1) A concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 shall be suspended or revoked if the concealed carry endorsement holder becomes ineligible for such concealed carry endorsement under the criteria established in subdivisions (2), (3), (4), (5), and (7) of subsection 2 of section 571.101 or upon the issuance of a valid full order of protection.
(2) When a valid full order of protection, or any arrest warrant, discharge, or commitment for the reasons listed in subdivision (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection 2 of section 571.101, is issued against a person holding a concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 upon notification of said order, warrant, discharge or commitment or upon an order of a court of competent jurisdiction in a criminal proceeding, a commitment proceeding or a full order of protection proceeding ruling that a person holding a concealed carry endorsement presents a risk of harm to themselves or others, then upon notification of such order, the holder of the concealed carry endorsement shall surrender the driver's license or nondriver's license containing the concealed carry endorsement to the court, to the officer, or other official serving the order, warrant, discharge, or commitment.
(3) The official to whom the driver's license or nondriver's license containing the concealed carry endorsement is surrendered shall issue a receipt to the licensee for the license upon a form, approved by the director of revenue, that serves as a driver's license or a nondriver's license and clearly states the concealed carry endorsement has been suspended. The official shall then transmit the driver's license or a nondriver's license containing the concealed carry endorsement to the circuit court of the county issuing the order, warrant, discharge, or commitment. The concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 shall be suspended until the order is terminated or until the arrest results in a dismissal of all charges. Upon dismissal, the court holding the driver's license or nondriver's license containing the concealed carry endorsement shall return it to the individual.
(4) Any conviction, discharge, or commitment specified in sections 571.101 to 571.121 shall result in a revocation. Upon conviction, the court shall forward a notice of conviction or action and the driver's license or nondriver's license with the concealed carry endorsement to the department of revenue. The department of revenue shall notify the sheriff of the county which issued the certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement and shall report the change in status of the concealed carry endorsement to the Missouri uniform law enforcement system. The director of revenue shall immediately remove the endorsement issued pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 from the individual's driving record within three days of the receipt of the notice from the court. The director of revenue shall notify the licensee that he or she must apply for a new license pursuant to chapter 302, RSMo, which does not contain such endorsement. This requirement does not affect the driving privileges of the licensee. The notice issued by the department of revenue shall be mailed to the last known address shown on the individual's driving record. The notice is deemed received three days after mailing.
2. A concealed carry endorsement shall be renewed for a qualified applicant upon receipt of the properly completed renewal application and the required renewal fee by the sheriff of the county of the applicant's residence. The renewal application shall contain the same required information as set forth in subsection 3 of section 571.101, except that in lieu of the fingerprint requirement of subsection 5 of section 571.101 and the firearms safety training, the applicant need only display his or her current driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement. Upon successful completion of all renewal requirements, the sheriff shall issue a certificate of qualification which contains the date such certificate was renewed.
3. A person who has been issued a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement who fails to file a renewal application on or before its expiration date must pay an additional late fee of ten dollars per month for each month it is expired for up to six months. After six months, the sheriff who issued the expired certificate shall notify the director of revenue that such certificate is expired. The director of revenue shall immediately cancel the concealed carry endorsement and remove such endorsement from the individual's driving record and notify the individual of such cancellation. The notice of cancellation of the endorsement shall be conducted in the same manner as described in subsection 1 of this section. Any person who has been issued a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 who fails to renew his or her application within the six-month period must reapply for a new certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement and pay the fee for a new application. The director of revenue shall not issue an endorsement on a renewed driver's license or renewed nondriver's license unless the applicant for such license provides evidence that he or she has renewed the certification of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement in the manner provided for such renewal pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121. If an applicant for renewal of a driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement does not want to maintain the concealed carry endorsement, the applicant shall inform the director at the time of license renewal of his or her desire to remove the endorsement. When a driver's or nondriver's license applicant informs the director of his or her desire to remove the concealed carry endorsement, the director shall renew the driver's license or nondriver's license without the endorsement appearing on the license if the applicant is otherwise qualified for such renewal.
4. Any person issued a concealed carry endorsement pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 shall notify the department of revenue and the sheriffs of both the old and new jurisdictions of the endorsement holder's change of residence within thirty days after the changing of a permanent residence. The endorsement holder shall furnish proof to the department of revenue and the sheriff in the new jurisdiction that the endorsement holder has changed his or her residence. The sheriff of the new jurisdiction may charge a processing fee of not more than ten dollars for any costs associated with notification of a change in residence. The change of residence shall be made by the department of revenue onto the individual's driving record and the new address shall be accessible by the Missouri uniform law enforcement system within three days of receipt of the information.
5. Any person issued a driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 shall notify the sheriff or his or her designee of the endorsement holder's county or city of residence within seven days after actual knowledge of the loss or destruction of his or her driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement. The endorsement holder shall furnish a statement to the sheriff that the driver's license or nondriver's license containing the concealed carry endorsement has been lost or destroyed. After notification of the loss or destruction of a driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement, the sheriff shall reissue a new certificate of qualification within three working days of being notified by the concealed carry endorsement holder of its loss or destruction. The reissued certificate of qualification shall contain the same personal information, including expiration date, as the original certificate of qualification. The applicant shall then take the certificate to the department of revenue, and the department of revenue shall proceed on the certificate in the same manner as provided in subsection 7 section 571.101. Upon application for a license pursuant to chapter 302, RSMo, the director of revenue shall issue a driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement if the applicant is otherwise eligible to receive such license.
6. If a person issued a concealed carry endorsement changes his or her name, the person to whom the endorsement was issued shall obtain a corrected certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement with a change of name from the sheriff who issued such certificate upon the sheriff's verification of the name change. The sheriff may charge a processing fee of not more than ten dollars for any costs associated with obtaining a corrected certificate of qualification. The endorsement holder shall furnish proof of the name change to the department of revenue and the sheriff within thirty days of changing his or her name and display his or her current driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement. The endorsement holder shall apply for a new driver's license or nondriver's license containing his or her new name. Such application for a driver's license or nondriver's license shall be made pursuant to chapter 302, RSMo. The director of revenue shall issue a driver's license or nondriver's license with concealed carry endorsement with the endorsement holder's new name if the applicant is otherwise eligible for such license. The director of revenue shall take custody of the old driver's license or nondriver's license. The name change shall be made by the department of revenue onto the individual's driving record and the new name shall be accessible by the Missouri uniform law enforcement system within three days of receipt of the information.
7. A concealed carry endorsement shall be automatically invalid after thirty days if the endorsement holder has changed his or her name or changed his or her residence and not notified the department of revenue and sheriff of a change of name or residence as required in subsections 4 and 6 of this section.
571.107. 1. A concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 or a concealed carry endorsement or permit issued by another state or political subdivision of another state shall authorize the person in whose name the permit or endorsement is issued to carry concealed firearms on or about his or her person or vehicle throughout the state. No driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 or a concealed carry endorsement or permit issued by another state or political subdivision of another state shall authorize any person to carry concealed firearms into:
(1) Any police, sheriff, or highway patrol office or station without the consent of the chief law enforcement officer in charge of that office or station. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of the office or station shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;
(2) Within twenty-five feet of any polling place on any election day. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of the polling place shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;
(3) The facility of any adult or juvenile detention or correctional institution, prison or jail. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of any adult, juvenile detention, or correctional institution, prison or jail shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;
(4) Any courthouse solely occupied by the circuit, appellate or supreme court, or any courtrooms, administrative offices, libraries or other rooms of any such court whether or not such court solely occupies the building in question. This subdivision shall also include, but not be limited to, any juvenile, family, drug, or other court offices, any room or office wherein any of the courts or offices listed in this subdivision are temporarily conducting any business within the jurisdiction of such courts or offices, and such other locations in such manner as may be specified by supreme court rule pursuant to subdivision (6) of this subsection. Nothing in this subdivision shall preclude those persons listed in subdivision (1) of subsection 2 of section 571.030 while within their jurisdiction and on duty, those persons listed in subdivisions (2) [and], (4), and (10) of subsection 2 of section 571.030, or such other persons who serve in a law enforcement capacity for a court as may be specified by supreme court rule pursuant to subdivision (6) of this subsection from carrying a concealed firearm within any of the areas described in this subdivision. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of any of the areas listed in this subdivision shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;
(5) Any meeting of the governing body of a unit of local government; or any meeting of the general assembly or a committee of the general assembly, except that nothing in this subdivision shall preclude a member of the body holding a valid concealed carry endorsement from carrying a concealed firearm at a meeting of the body which he or she is a member. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;
(6) The general assembly, supreme court, county or municipality may by rule, administrative regulation, or ordinance prohibit or limit the carrying of concealed firearms by endorsement holders in that portion of a building owned, leased or controlled by that unit of government. Any portion of a building in which the carrying of concealed firearms is prohibited or limited shall be clearly identified by signs posted at the entrance to the restricted area. The statute, rule or ordinance shall exempt any building used for public housing by private persons, highways or rest areas, firing ranges, and private dwellings owned, leased, or controlled by that unit of government from any restriction on the carrying or possession of a firearm. The statute, rule or ordinance shall not specify any criminal penalty for its violation but may specify that persons violating the statute, rule or ordinance may be denied entrance to the building, ordered to leave the building and if employees of the unit of government, be subjected to disciplinary measures for violation of the provisions of the statute, rule or ordinance. The provisions of this subdivision shall not apply to any other unit of government;
(7) Any establishment licensed to dispense intoxicating liquor for consumption on the premises, which portion is primarily devoted to that purpose, without the consent of the owner or manager. The provisions of this subdivision shall not apply to the licensee of said establishment. The provisions of this subdivision shall not apply to any bona fide restaurant open to the general public having dining facilities for not less than fifty persons and that receives at least fifty-one percent of its gross annual income from the dining facilities by the sale of food. This subdivision does not prohibit the possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of the establishment and shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises. Nothing in this subdivision authorizes any individual who has been issued a concealed carry endorsement to possess any firearm while intoxicated;
(8) Any area of an airport to which access is controlled by the inspection of persons and property. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of the airport shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;
(9) Any place where the carrying of a firearm is prohibited by federal law;
(10) Any higher education institution or elementary or secondary school facility without the consent of the governing body of the higher education institution or a school official or the district school board. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of any higher education institution or elementary or secondary school facility shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;
(11) Any portion of a building used as a child-care facility without the consent of the manager. Nothing in this subdivision shall prevent the operator of a child-care facility in a family home from owning or possessing a firearm or a driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement;
(12) Any riverboat gambling operation accessible by the public without the consent of the owner or manager pursuant to rules promulgated by the gaming commission. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of a riverboat gambling operation shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;
(13) Any gated area of an amusement park. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of the amusement park shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;
(14) Any church or other place of religious worship without the consent of the minister or person or persons representing the religious organization that exercises control over the place of religious worship. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;
(15) Any private property whose owner has posted the premises as being off-limits to concealed firearms by means of one or more signs displayed in a conspicuous place of a minimum size of eleven inches by fourteen inches with the writing thereon in letters of not less than one inch. The owner, business or commercial lessee, manager of a private business enterprise, or any other organization, entity, or person may prohibit persons holding a concealed carry endorsement from carrying concealed firearms on the premises and may prohibit employees, not authorized by the employer, holding a concealed carry endorsement from carrying concealed firearms on the property of the employer. If the building or the premises are open to the public, the employer of the business enterprise shall post signs on or about the premises if carrying a concealed firearm is prohibited. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises. An employer may prohibit employees or other persons holding a concealed carry endorsement from carrying a concealed firearm in vehicles owned by the employer;
(16) Any sports arena or stadium with a seating capacity of five thousand or more. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;
(17) Any hospital accessible by the public. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of a hospital shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises.
2. Carrying of a concealed firearm in a location specified in subdivisions (1) to (17) of subsection 1 of this section by any individual who holds a concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 shall not be a criminal act but may subject the person to denial to the premises or removal from the premises. If such person refuses to leave the premises and a peace officer is summoned, such person may be issued a citation for an amount not to exceed one hundred dollars for the first offense. If a second citation for a similar violation occurs within a six-month period, such person shall be fined an amount not to exceed two hundred dollars and his or her endorsement to carry concealed firearms shall be suspended for a period of one year. If a third citation for a similar violation is issued within one year of the first citation, such person shall be fined an amount not to exceed five hundred dollars and shall have his or her concealed carry endorsement revoked and such person shall not be eligible for a concealed carry endorsement for a period of three years. Upon conviction of charges arising from a citation issued pursuant to this subsection, the court shall notify the sheriff of the county which issued the certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement and the department of revenue. The sheriff shall suspend or revoke the certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement and the department of revenue shall issue a notice of such suspension or revocation of the concealed carry endorsement and take action to remove the concealed carry endorsement from the individual's driving record. The director of revenue shall notify the licensee that he or she must apply for a new license pursuant to chapter 302, RSMo, which does not contain such endorsement. A concealed carry endorsement suspension pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 shall be reinstated at the time of the renewal of his or her driver's license. The notice issued by the department of revenue shall be mailed to the last known address shown on the individual's driving record. The notice is deemed received three days after mailing.
[214.290. Any cemetery operator who within ninety days from the effective date of sections 214.270 to 214.410 elects to operate a cemetery which exists on the effective date of sections 214.270 to 214.410 as an endowed care cemetery or who represents to the public that perpetual, permanent, endowed, continual, eternal care, care of duration or similar care will be furnished cemetery property sold, shall before selling or disposing of any interment space or lots in said cemetery after the date of such election, establish a minimum endowed care and maintenance fund in cash in the amount required by section 214.300 unless an endowed care fund is already in existence to which regular deposits have been made (whether or not the fund then existing shall be in the minimum amount required under section 214.300).]
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