Bill Text: CA AB3364 | 2019-2020 | Regular Session | Amended

NOTE: There are more recent revisions of this legislation. Read Latest Draft
Bill Title: Judiciary omnibus.

Spectrum: Committee Bill

Status: (Passed) 2020-08-31 - Chaptered by Secretary of State - Chapter 36, Statutes of 2020. [AB3364 Detail]

Download: California-2019-AB3364-Amended.html

Amended  IN  Assembly  May 04, 2020

CALIFORNIA LEGISLATURE— 2019–2020 REGULAR SESSION

Assembly Bill
No. 3364


Introduced by Committee on Judiciary (Assembly Members Mark Stone (Chair), Gallagher (Vice Chair), Chau, Chiu, Holden, Kalra, and Reyes)

March 05, 2020


An act to amend Section 6075.5 of the Business and Professions Code, to amend Sections 55.32 55.32, 1102.19, and 1788.18 of the Civil Code, to amend Sections 708.150 708.150, 1161.2, and 1540 of the Code of Civil Procedure, to amend Section 5650.1 of the Fish and Game Code, and to amend Section Sections 12921, 12926, 12940, and 14985.8 of the Government Code, to amend Section 15642 of the Probate Code, and to amend Section 19209 of the Public Contract Code, relating to state government.


LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGEST


AB 3364, as amended, Committee on Judiciary. Judiciary omnibus.
(1) Existing law, the State Bar Act, provides for the licensure and regulation of attorneys by the State Bar of California and requires the State Bar to adopt regulations to require, as of January 1, 2022, that the mandatory continuing legal education curriculum for all licensees include training on bias, as specified. Existing law requires a licensee to meet the requirements for each compliance period ending after January 31, 2023.
This bill would instead require a licensee to meet the requirements for each compliance period ending after January 31, 2022.
(2) Existing law requires a seller of residential real property located in a high or very high fire hazard severity zone, as specified, to provide to the buyer documentation stating that the property is in compliance with state law requiring certain defensible space requirements around the property or, if applicable, with a local vegetation management ordinance. If the seller has not obtained that documentation, existing law requires the seller and buyer to enter into a written agreement pursuant to which the buyer agrees to obtain documentation of compliance, as specified.
This bill would specify that nothing in those provisions, including provisions regarding the existence of an agreement between a buyer and seller, limits the ability of a state or local agency to enforce defensible space requirements or other applicable statutes, regulations, and local ordinances.

(2)

(3) Existing law, the Rosenthal Fair Debt Collection Practices Act, requires a debt collector to cease collection activities until a review is completed upon receipt of, among other documents, the debtor’s written statement that the debtor claims to be the victim of identity theft. Existing law authorizes this writing to be, among others, a Federal Trade Commission’s Affidavit of Identity Theft.
This bill would instead authorize this writing to be a Federal Trade Commission’s identity theft report.

(3)

(4) Existing law specifies procedures for the enforcement of money judgments and requires a judgment debtor to appear for examination pursuant to a court order upon application by the judgment creditor. If a corporation, partnership, association, trust, or other organization is served with an order to appear for an examination, existing law requires those entities to designate to appear and be examined by one or more officers, directors, managing agents, or other persons familiar with the property or debts. Existing law authorizes one or more officers to accompany an individual if the order to appear requires the appearance of a specified individual.
This bill would make those provisions applicable to limited liability companies.
(5) Existing law authorizes access to limited civil case records filed in an unlawful detainer action only under specified circumstances, and authorizes a county clerk to allow any person to access those records 60 days after the complaint has been filed if the plaintiff prevails in the action within 60 days of the filing of the complaint, except as specified.
This bill would instead authorize the county clerk to allow access to those records to any person 60 days after the complaint has been filed if judgment against all defendants has been entered for the plaintiff within 60 days of the filing of the complaint, except as specified.

(4)

(6) Existing law, the Unclaimed Property Law, provides for the disposition of unclaimed property received by the state unless conditions for escheat exist. Existing law authorizes a person who claims to have been the owner of the property paid or delivered to the state to file a claim to the property. Existing law authorizes property received by the Controller in the name of a state or local agency to be transferred to the state or local agency without the filing of a claim.
This bill would make those transfer provisions applicable to school districts and community college districts.

(5)

(7) Existing law makes it unlawful to deposit, permit to pass, or place where it can pass, specified pollutants into the waters of this state, including petroleum, acid, coal, or tar. Existing law makes a violation of those provisions subject to a civil penalty of $25,000 for each violation, and requires the civil action to be brought by the Attorney General upon complaint by the Department of Fish and Wildlife or by the district attorney or city attorney in the name of the people of the State of California.
This bill would also authorize the Attorney General to bring a civil action under their own authority in the name of the people of the State of California. California, and would specify the Attorney General should consult with the Department of Fish and Wildlife.
(8) The California Fair Employment and Housing Act generally prohibits discrimination in employment and housing based on specified personal characteristics, including veteran or military status.
This bill would make conforming, nonsubstantive changes to the term “veteran or military status” in those provisions.

(6)

(9) Existing law requires an attorney who provides a demand letter for a construction-related accessibility claim to a building owner or tenant to send a copy of, and information about, the demand letter to the California Commission on Disability Access in the Department of General Services in a standard format specified by the commission.
This bill would require the commission, at least 30 days before requiring a new standard format, to post on its internet website the new standard format and the date on which the commission will begin requiring the information to be sent in the new standard format.
(10) Existing law requires the Judicial Counsel to provide a report twice a year to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee and the State Auditor that contains specified information relating to contracts and payments made to vendors and contractors.
This bill would instead require the Judicial Counsel to provide a report only once a year, would revise the information required in the report, and would require judicial branch entities to make certain information available in the Financial Information System for California (FISCal).

(7)

(11) This bill would make other nonsubstantive and conforming changes.
Vote: MAJORITY   Appropriation: NO   Fiscal Committee: YES   Local Program: NO  

The people of the State of California do enact as follows:


SECTION 1.

 Section 6070.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

6070.5.
 (a) The State Bar shall adopt regulations to require, as of January 1, 2022, that the mandatory continuing legal education (MCLE) curriculum for all licensees under this chapter includes training on implicit bias and the promotion of bias-reducing strategies to address how unintended biases regarding race, ethnicity, gender identity, sexual orientation, socioeconomic status, or other characteristics undermine confidence in the legal system. A licensee shall meet the requirements of this section for each MCLE compliance period ending after January 31, 2022.
(b) When approving MCLE providers to offer the training required by subdivision (a), the State Bar shall require that the MCLE provider meets, at a minimum, all of the following requirements:
(1) The MCLE provider shall make reasonable efforts to recruit and hire trainers who are representative of the diversity of persons that California’s legal system serves.
(2) The trainers shall have either academic training in implicit bias or experience educating legal professionals about implicit bias and its effects on people accessing and interacting with the legal system.
(3) The training shall include a component regarding the impact of implicit bias, explicit bias, and systemic bias on the legal system and the effect this can have on people accessing and interacting with the legal system.
(4) The training shall include actionable steps licensees can take to recognize and address their own implicit biases.
(c) As part of the certification, approval, or renewal process for MCLE-approved provider status, or more frequently if required by the State Bar, the MCLE provider shall attest to its compliance with the requirements of subdivision (b) and shall confirm that it will continue to comply with those requirements for the duration of the provider’s approval period.

SEC. 2.

 Section 55.32 of the Civil Code is amended to read:

55.32.
 (a) An attorney who provides a demand letter, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 55.3, shall do all of the following:
(1) Include the attorney’s State Bar license number in the demand letter.
(2) Within five business days of providing the demand letter, send a copy of the demand letter, and submit information about the demand letter in a standard format specified by the California Commission on Disability Access on the commission’s internet website pursuant to Section 14985.8 of the Government Code, to the commission.
(b) An attorney who sends or serves a complaint, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 55.3, shall do both of the following:
(1) Send a copy of the complaint and submit information about the complaint in a standard format specified by the California Commission on Disability Access on the commission’s internet website pursuant to Section 14985.8 of the Government Code to the commission within five business days of sending or serving the complaint.
(2) Notify the California Commission on Disability Access within five business days of judgment, settlement, or dismissal of the claim or claims alleged in the complaint of the following information in a standard format specified by the commission on the commission’s internet website pursuant to Section 14985.8 of the Government Code:
(A) The date of the judgment, settlement, or dismissal.
(B) Whether or not the construction-related accessibility violations alleged in the complaint were remedied in whole or in part after the plaintiff filed a complaint or provided a demand letter, as defined by Section 55.3.
(C) If the construction-related accessibility violations alleged in the complaint were not remedied in whole or in part after the plaintiff filed a complaint or provided a demand letter, as defined by Section 55.3, whether or not another favorable result was achieved after the plaintiff filed the complaint or provided the demand letter.
(D) Whether or not the defendant submitted an application for an early evaluation conference and stay pursuant to Section 55.54, whether the defendant requested a site inspection, the date of any early evaluation conference, and the date of any site inspection.
(c) A violation of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) or subdivision (b) shall constitute cause for the imposition of discipline of an attorney if a copy of the demand letter, complaint, or notification of a case outcome is not sent to the California Commission on Disability Access in the standard format specified on the commission’s internet website pursuant to Section 14985.8 of the Government Code within five business days. In the event the State Bar receives information indicating that an attorney has failed to send a copy of the demand letter, complaint, or notification of a case outcome to the California Commission on Disability Access in the standard format specified on the commission’s internet website pursuant to Section 14985.8 of the Government Code within five business days, the State Bar shall investigate to determine whether paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) or subdivision (b) has been violated.
(d) Notwithstanding subdivisions (a) and (b), an attorney is not required to send to the California Commission on Disability Access a copy of any subsequent demand letter or amended complaint in the same dispute following the initial demand letter or complaint, unless that subsequent demand letter or amended complaint alleges a new construction-related accessibility claim.
(e) A demand letter or notification of a case outcome sent to the California Commission on Disability Access shall be for the informational purposes of Section 14985.8 of the Government Code. A demand letter received by the State Bar from the recipient of the demand letter shall be reviewed by the State Bar to determine whether subdivision (b) or (c) of Section 55.31 has been violated.
(f) (1) Notwithstanding Section 10231.5 of the Government Code, on or before April 30, 2019, and annually as part of the Annual Discipline Report, no later than April 30 thereafter, the State Bar shall report to the Legislature and the Chairs of the Senate and Assembly Judiciary Committees, both of the following with respect to demand letters received by the State Bar:
(A) The number of investigations opened to date on a suspected violation of subdivision (b) or (c) of Section 55.31.
(B) Whether any disciplinary action resulted from the investigation, and the results of that disciplinary action.
(2) A report to be submitted pursuant to this subdivision shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government Code.
(g) The California Commission on Disability Access shall review and report on the demand letters, complaints, and notifications of case outcomes it receives as provided in Section 14985.8 of the Government Code.
(h) The expiration of any ground for discipline of an attorney shall not affect the imposition of discipline for any act prior to the expiration. An act or omission that constituted cause for imposition of discipline of an attorney when committed or omitted prior to January 1, 2019, shall continue to constitute cause for the imposition of discipline of that attorney on and after January 1, 2019.
(i) Paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) and subdivision (b) shall not apply to a demand letter or complaint sent or filed by an attorney employed or retained by a qualified legal services project or a qualified support center, as defined in Section 6213 of the Business and Professions Code, when acting within the scope of employment in asserting a construction-related accessibility claim. The Legislature finds and declares that qualified legal services projects and support centers are extensively regulated by the State Bar of California, and that there is no evidence of any abusive use of demand letters or complaints by these organizations. The Legislature further finds that, in light of the evidence of the extraordinarily small number of construction-related accessibility cases brought by regulated legal services programs, and given the resources of those programs, exempting regulated legal services programs from the requirements of this section to report to the California Commission on Disability Access will not affect the purpose of the reporting to, and tabulation by, the commission of all other construction-related accessibility claims.

SEC. 3.

 Section 1102.19 of the Civil Code is amended to read:

1102.19.
 (a) On and after July 1, 2021, a seller of a real property subject to this article that is located in a high or very high fire hazard severity zone, as identified by the Director of Forestry and Fire Protection pursuant to Section 51178 of the Government Code or Article 9 (commencing with Section 4201) of Chapter 1 of Part 2 of Division 4 of the Public Resources Code, shall provide to the buyer documentation stating that the property is in compliance with Section 4291 of the Public Resources Code or local vegetation management ordinances, as follows:
(1) In a local jurisdiction that has enacted an ordinance requiring an owner of real property to obtain documentation that the property is in compliance with Section 4291 of the Public Resources Code or a local vegetation management ordinance, the seller shall provide the buyer with a copy of the documentation that complies with the requirements of that local ordinance and information on the local agency from which a copy of that documentation may be obtained.
(2) In a local jurisdiction that has not enacted an ordinance for an owner of real property to obtain documentation that a property is in compliance with Section 4291 of the Public Resources Code or a local vegetation management ordinance, and if a state or local agency, or other government entity, or other qualified nonprofit entity, provides an inspection with documentation for the jurisdiction in which the property is located, the seller shall provide the buyer with the documentation obtained in the six-month period preceding the date the seller enters into a transaction to sell that real property and provide information on the local agency from which a copy of that documentation may be obtained.
(b) On and after July 1, 2021, if the seller of a real property described in subdivision (a) has not obtained documentation of compliance in accordance with paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision (a), the seller and the buyer shall enter into a written agreement pursuant to which the buyer agrees to obtain documentation of compliance with Section 4291 of the Public Resources Code or a local vegetation management ordinance as follows:
(1) In a local jurisdiction that has enacted an ordinance requiring an owner or buyer to obtain documentation of compliance with Section 4291 of the Public Resources Code or a local vegetation management ordinance, the buyer shall comply with that ordinance.
(2) In a local jurisdiction that has not enacted an ordinance requiring an owner or buyer to obtain documentation of compliance, and if a state or local agency, or other government entity, or other qualified nonprofit entity, provides an inspection with documentation for the jurisdiction in which the property is located, the buyer shall obtain documentation of compliance within one year of the date of the close of escrow.
(c) Nothing in this section, including the existence of an agreement between a buyer and seller pursuant to subdivision (b), shall limit the ability of a state or local agency to enforce defensible space requirements pursuant to Section 51182 of the Government Code, Section 4291 of the Public Resources Code, or other applicable statutes, regulations, and local ordinances.

SEC. 3.SEC. 4.

 Section 1788.18 of the Civil Code is amended to read:

1788.18.
 (a) Upon receipt from a debtor of all of the following, a debt collector shall cease collection activities until completion of the review provided in subdivision (d):
(1) A copy of a police report filed by the debtor alleging that the debtor is the victim of an identity theft crime, including, but not limited to, a violation of Section 530.5 of the Penal Code, for the specific debt being collected by the debt collector.
(2) The debtor’s written statement that the debtor claims to be the victim of identity theft with respect to the specific debt being collected by the debt collector.
(b) The written statement described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) shall consist of any of the following:
(1) A Federal Trade Commission’s identity theft report.
(2) A written statement that contains the content of the Identity Theft Victim’s Fraudulent Account Information Request offered to the public by the California Office of Privacy Protection.
(3) A written statement that certifies that the representations are true, correct, and contain no material omissions of fact to the best knowledge and belief of the person submitting the certification. A person submitting the certification who declares as true any material matter pursuant to this subdivision that they know to be false is guilty of a misdemeanor. The statement shall contain or be accompanied by the following, to the extent that an item listed below is relevant to the debtor’s allegation of identity theft with respect to the debt in question:
(A) A statement that the debtor is a victim of identity theft.
(B) A copy of the debtor’s driver’s license or identification card, as issued by the state.
(C) Any other identification document that supports the statement of identity theft.
(D) Specific facts supporting the claim of identity theft, if available.
(E) Any explanation showing that the debtor did not incur the debt.
(F) Any available correspondence disputing the debt after transaction information has been provided to the debtor.
(G) Documentation of the residence of the debtor at the time of the alleged debt. This may include copies of bills and statements, such as utility bills, tax statements, or other statements from businesses sent to the debtor, showing that the debtor lived at another residence at the time the debt was incurred.
(H) A telephone number for contacting the debtor concerning any additional information or questions, or direction that further communications to the debtor be in writing only, with the mailing address specified in the statement.
(I) To the extent the debtor has information concerning who may have incurred the debt, the identification of any person whom the debtor believes is responsible.
(J) An express statement that the debtor did not authorize the use of the debtor’s name or personal information for incurring the debt.
(K) The certification required pursuant to this paragraph shall be sufficient if it is in substantially the following form:
“I certify the representations made are true, correct, and
contain no material omissions of fact.
_____ (Date and Place) _____ _____ (Signature) _____ ”
(c) If a debtor notifies a debt collector orally that they are a victim of identity theft, the debt collector shall notify the debtor, orally or in writing, that the debtor’s claim must be in writing. If a debtor notifies a debt collector in writing that they are a victim of identity theft, but omits information required pursuant to subdivision (a) or, if applicable, the certification required pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (b), if the debt collector does not cease collection activities, the debt collector shall provide written notice to the debtor of the additional information that is required, or the certification required pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (b), as applicable, or send the debtor a copy of the Federal Trade Commission’s Affidavit of Identity Theft form.
(d) Within 10 business days of receiving the complete statement and information described in subdivision (a), the debt collector shall, if it furnished adverse information about the debtor to a consumer credit reporting agency, notify the consumer credit reporting agency that the account is disputed, and initiate a review considering all of the information provided by the debtor and other information available to the debt collector in its file or from the creditor. The debt collector shall send notice of its determination to the debtor no later than 10 business days after concluding the review. The debt collector may recommence debt collection activities only upon making a good faith determination that the information does not establish that the debtor is not responsible for the specific debt in question. The debt collector’s determination shall be made in a manner consistent with the provisions of subsection (1) of Section 1692 of Title 15 of the United States Code, as incorporated by Section 1788.17 of this code. The debt collector shall notify the debtor in writing of that determination and the basis for that determination before proceeding with any further collection activities. The debt collector’s determination shall be based on all of the information provided by the debtor and other information available to the debt collector in its file or from the creditor.
(e) No inference or presumption that the debt is valid or invalid, or that the debtor is liable or not liable for the debt, shall arise if the debt collector decides after the review described in subdivision (d) to cease or recommence the debt collection activities. The exercise or nonexercise of rights under this section is not a waiver of any other right or defense of the debtor or debt collector.
(f) The statement and supporting documents that comply with subdivision (a) may also satisfy, to the extent those documents meet the requirements of, the notice requirement of paragraph (5) of subdivision (c) of Section 1798.93.
(g) A debt collector who ceases collection activities under this section and does not recommence those collection activities shall do all of the following:
(1) If the debt collector has furnished adverse information to a consumer credit reporting agency, notify the agency to delete that information no later than 10 business days after making its determination.
(2) Notify the creditor no later than 10 business days after making its determination that debt collection activities have been terminated based upon the debtor’s claim of identity theft.
(h) A debt collector who has possession of documents that the debtor is entitled to request from a creditor pursuant to Section 530.8 of the Penal Code is authorized to provide those documents to the debtor.
(i) Notwithstanding subdivision (h) of Section 1788.2, for the purposes of this section, “debtor” means a natural person, firm, association, organization, partnership, business trust, company, corporation, or limited liability company from which a debt collector seeks to collect a debt that is due and owing or alleged to be due and owing from the person or entity. The remedies provided by this title shall apply equally to violations of this section.

SEC. 4.SEC. 5.

 Section 708.150 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:

708.150.
 (a) If a corporation, partnership, association, trust, limited liability company, or other organization is served with an order to appear for an examination, it shall designate to appear and be examined one or more officers, directors, managing agents, or other persons who are familiar with its property and debts.
(b) If the order to appear for an examination requires the appearance of a specified individual, the specified individual shall appear for the examination and may be accompanied by one or more officers, directors, managing agents, or other persons familiar with the property and debts of the corporation, partnership, association, trust, limited liability company, or other organization.
(c) If the order to appear for the examination does not require the appearance of a specified individual, the order shall advise the corporation, partnership, association, trust, limited liability company, or other organization of its duty to make a designation under subdivision (a).
(d) A corporation, partnership, association, trust, limited liability company, or other organization, whether or not a party, may appear at an examination through any authorized officer, director, or employee, whether or not the person is an attorney.

SEC. 6.

 Section 1161.2 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:

1161.2.
 (a) (1) The clerk shall allow access to limited civil case records filed under this chapter, including the court file, index, and register of actions, only as follows:
(A) To a party to the action, including a party’s attorney.
(B) To a person who provides the clerk with the names of at least one plaintiff and one defendant and the address of the premises, including the apartment or unit number, if any.
(C) To a resident of the premises who provides the clerk with the name of one of the parties or the case number and shows proof of residency.
(D) To a person by order of the court, which may be granted ex parte, on a showing of good cause.
(E) To any person by order of the court if judgment is entered for the plaintiff after trial more than 60 days since the filing of the complaint. The court shall issue the order upon issuing judgment for the plaintiff.
(F) Except as provided in subparagraph (G), to any other person 60 days after the complaint has been filed if judgment against all defendants has been entered for the plaintiff prevails in the action within 60 days of the filing of the complaint, in which case the clerk shall allow access to any court records in the action. If a default or default judgment is set aside more than 60 days after the complaint has been filed, this section shall apply as if the complaint had been filed on the date the default or default judgment is set aside.
(G) In the case of a complaint involving residential property based on Section 1161a as indicated in the caption of the complaint, as required in subdivision (c) of Section 1166, to any other person, if 60 days have elapsed since the complaint was filed with the court, and, as of that date, judgment against all defendants has been entered for the plaintiff, after a trial.
(2) This section shall not be construed to prohibit the court from issuing an order that bars access to the court record in an action filed under this chapter if the parties to the action so stipulate.
(b) (1) For purposes of this section, “good cause” includes, but is not limited to, both of the following:
(A) The gathering of newsworthy facts by a person described in Section 1070 of the Evidence Code.
(B) The gathering of evidence by a party to an unlawful detainer action solely for the purpose of making a request for judicial notice pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 452 of the Evidence Code.
(2) It is the intent of the Legislature that a simple procedure be established to request the ex parte order described in subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a).
(c) Upon the filing of a case so restricted, the court clerk shall mail notice to each defendant named in the action. The notice shall be mailed to the address provided in the complaint. The notice shall contain a statement that an unlawful detainer complaint (eviction action) has been filed naming that party as a defendant, and that access to the court file will be delayed for 60 days except to a party, an attorney for one of the parties, or any other person who (1) provides to the clerk the names of at least one plaintiff and one defendant in the action and provides to the clerk the address, including any applicable apartment, unit, or space number, of the subject premises, or (2) provides to the clerk the name of one of the parties in the action or the case number and can establish through proper identification that he or she the person lives at the subject premises. The notice shall also contain a statement that access to the court index, register of actions, or other records is not permitted until 60 days after the complaint is filed, except pursuant to an order upon a showing of good cause for access. The notice shall contain on its face the following information:
(1) The name and telephone number of the county bar association.
(2) The name and telephone number of any entity that requests inclusion on the notice and demonstrates to the satisfaction of the court that it has been certified by the State Bar of California as a lawyer referral service and maintains a panel of attorneys qualified in the practice of landlord-tenant law pursuant to the minimum standards for a lawyer referral service established by the State Bar of California and Section 6155 of the Business and Professions Code.
(3) The following statement:

“The State Bar of California certifies lawyer referral services in California and publishes a list of certified lawyer referral services organized by county. To locate a lawyer referral service in your county, go to the State Bar’s Internet Web site internet website at www.calbar.ca.gov or call 1-866-442-2529.”

(4) The name and telephone number of an office or offices funded by the federal Legal Services Corporation or qualified legal services projects that receive funds distributed pursuant to Section 6216 of the Business and Professions Code that provide legal services to low-income persons in the county in which the action is filed. The notice shall state that these telephone numbers may be called for legal advice regarding the case. The notice shall be issued between 24 and 48 hours of the filing of the complaint, excluding weekends and holidays. One copy of the notice shall be addressed to “all occupants” and mailed separately to the subject premises. The notice shall not constitute service of the summons and complaint.
(d) Notwithstanding any other law, the court shall charge an additional fee of fifteen dollars ($15) for filing a first appearance by the plaintiff. This fee shall be added to the uniform filing fee for actions filed under this chapter.
(e) This section does not apply to a case that seeks to terminate a mobilehome park tenancy if the statement of the character of the proceeding in the caption of the complaint clearly indicates that the complaint seeks termination of a mobilehome park tenancy.
(f) This section does not alter any provision of the Evidence Code.

SEC. 5.SEC. 7.

 Section 1540 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:

1540.
 (a) Any person, excluding another state, who claims to have been the owner, as defined in subdivision (d), of property paid or delivered to the Controller under this chapter may file a claim to the property or to the net proceeds from its sale. The claim shall be on a form prescribed by the Controller and shall be verified by the claimant.
(b) The Controller shall consider each claim within 180 days after it is filed to determine if the claimant is the owner, as defined in subdivision (d), and may hold a hearing and receive evidence. The Controller shall give written notice to the claimant if the Controller denies the claim in whole or in part. The notice may be given by mailing it to the address, if any, stated in the claim as the address to which notices are to be sent. If no address is stated in the claim, the notice may be mailed to the address, if any, of the claimant as stated in the claim. A notice of denial need not be given if the claim fails to state either an address to which notices are to be sent or an address of the claimant.
(c) Interest shall not be payable on any claim paid under this chapter.
(d) Notwithstanding subdivision (g) of Section 1501, for purposes of filing a claim pursuant to this section, “owner” means the person who had legal right to the property before its escheat, the person’s heirs or estate representative, the person’s guardian or conservator, or a public administrator acting pursuant to the authority granted in Sections 7660 and 7661 of the Probate Code. An “owner” also means a nonprofit civic, charitable, or educational organization that granted a charter, sponsorship, or approval for the existence of the organization that had the legal right to the property before its escheat but that has dissolved or is no longer in existence, if the charter, sponsorship, approval, organization bylaws, or other governing documents provide that unclaimed or surplus property shall be conveyed to the granting organization upon dissolution or cessation to exist as a distinct legal entity. Only an owner, as defined in this subdivision, may file a claim with the Controller pursuant to this article.
(e) Following a public hearing, the Controller shall adopt guidelines and forms that shall provide specific instructions to assist owners in filing claims pursuant to this article.
(f) Notwithstanding any other provision, property reported to, and received by, the Controller pursuant to this chapter in the name of a state agency, including the University of California and the California State University, or a local agency, including a school district and community college district, may be transferred by the Controller directly to the state or local agency without the filing of a claim. Property transferred pursuant to this subdivision is immune from suit pursuant to Section 1566 in the same manner as if the state or local agency had filed a claim to the property. For purposes of this subdivision, “local agency” means a city, county, city and county, or district.

SEC. 6.SEC. 8.

 Section 5650.1 of the Fish and Game Code is amended to read:

5650.1.
 (a) A person who violates Section 5650 is subject to a civil penalty of not more than twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000) for each violation.
(b) The civil penalty imposed for each separate violation pursuant to this section is separate, and in addition to, any other civil penalty imposed for a separate violation pursuant to this section or any other provision of law, except as provided in subdivision (j).
(c) In determining the amount of a civil penalty imposed pursuant to this section, the court shall take into consideration all relevant circumstances, including, but not limited to, the nature, circumstance, extent, and gravity of the violation. In making this determination, the court shall consider the degree of toxicity and volume of the discharge, the extent of harm caused by the violation, whether the effects of the violation may be reversed or mitigated, and with respect to the defendant, the ability to pay, the effect of any civil penalty on the ability to continue in business, any voluntary cleanup efforts undertaken, any prior history of violations, the gravity of the behavior, the economic benefit, if any, resulting from the violation, and any other matters the court determines justice may require.
(d) (1) Every civil action brought under this section shall be brought by the Attorney General upon complaint by the department, or by the district attorney or city attorney in the name of the people of the State of California, and any actions relating to the same violation may be joined or consolidated.
(2) The Attorney General may bring a civil action under this section upon their own authority in the name of the people of the State of California. The Attorney General should consult with the department before bringing a civil action under this section.
(e) In a civil action brought pursuant to this chapter in which a temporary restraining order, preliminary injunction, or permanent injunction is sought, it is not necessary to allege or prove at any stage of the proceeding that irreparable damage will occur if the temporary restraining order, preliminary injunction, or permanent injunction is not issued, or that the remedy at law is inadequate.
(f) After the party seeking the injunction has met its burden of proof, the court shall determine whether to issue a temporary restraining order, preliminary injunction, or permanent injunction without requiring the defendant to prove that it will suffer grave or irreparable harm. The court shall make the determination whether to issue a temporary restraining order, preliminary injunction, or permanent injunction by taking into consideration, among other things, the nature, circumstance, extent, and gravity of the violation, the quantity and characteristics of the substance or material involved, the extent of environmental harm caused by the violation, measures taken by the defendant to remedy the violation, the relative likelihood that the material or substance involved may pass into waters of the state, and the harm likely to be caused to the defendant.
(g) The court, to the maximum extent possible, shall tailor a temporary restraining order, preliminary injunction, or permanent injunction narrowly to address the violation in a manner that will otherwise allow the defendant to continue business operations in a lawful manner.
(h) All civil penalties collected pursuant to this section shall not be considered fines or forfeitures as defined in Section 13003 and shall be apportioned in the following manner:
(1) Fifty percent shall be distributed to the county treasurer of the county in which the action is prosecuted. Amounts paid to the county treasurer shall be deposited in the county fish and wildlife propagation fund established pursuant to Section 13100.
(2) Fifty percent shall be distributed to the department for deposit in the Fish and Game Preservation Fund. These funds may be expended to cover the costs of legal actions or for any other law enforcement purpose consistent with Section 9 of Article XVI of the California Constitution.
(i) Except as provided in subdivision (j), in addition to any other penalty provided by law, a person who violates Section 5650 is subject to a civil penalty of not more than ten dollars ($10) for each gallon or pound of material discharged. The total amount of the civil penalty shall be reduced for every gallon or pound of the illegally discharged material that is recovered and properly disposed of by the responsible party.
(j) A person shall not be subject to a civil penalty imposed under this section and to a civil penalty imposed pursuant to Article 9 (commencing with Section 8670.57) of Chapter 7.4 of Division 1 of Title 2 of the Government Code for the same act or failure to act.

SEC. 9.

 Section 12921 of the Government Code is amended to read:

12921.
 (a) The opportunity to seek, obtain, and hold employment without discrimination because of race, religious creed, color, national origin, ancestry, physical disability, mental disability, medical condition, genetic information, marital status, sex, gender, gender identity, gender expression, age, sexual orientation, or military and veteran veteran or military status is hereby recognized as and declared to be a civil right.
(b) The opportunity to seek, obtain, and hold housing without discrimination because of race, color, religion, sex, gender, gender identity, gender expression, sexual orientation, marital status, national origin, ancestry, familial status, source of income, disability, veteran or military status, genetic information, or any other basis prohibited by Section 51 of the Civil Code is hereby recognized as and declared to be a civil right.

SEC. 10.

 Section 12926 of the Government Code is amended to read:

12926.
 As used in this part in connection with unlawful practices, unless a different meaning clearly appears from the context:
(a) “Affirmative relief” or “prospective relief” includes the authority to order reinstatement of an employee, awards of backpay, reimbursement of out-of-pocket expenses, hiring, transfers, reassignments, grants of tenure, promotions, cease and desist orders, posting of notices, training of personnel, testing, expunging of records, reporting of records, and any other similar relief that is intended to correct unlawful practices under this part.
(b) “Age” refers to the chronological age of any individual who has reached a 40th birthday.
(c) Except as provided by Section 12926.05, “employee” does not include any individual employed by that person’s parent, spouse, or child or any individual employed under a special license in a nonprofit sheltered workshop or rehabilitation facility.
(d) “Employer” includes any person regularly employing five or more persons, or any person acting as an agent of an employer, directly or indirectly, the state or any political or civil subdivision of the state, and cities, except as follows:
“Employer” does not include a religious association or corporation not organized for private profit.
(e) “Employment agency” includes any person undertaking for compensation to procure employees or opportunities to work.
(f) “Essential functions” means the fundamental job duties of the employment position the individual with a disability holds or desires. “Essential functions” does not include the marginal functions of the position.
(1) A job function may be considered essential for any of several reasons, including, but not limited to, any one or more of the following:
(A) The function may be essential because the reason the position exists is to perform that function.
(B) The function may be essential because of the limited number of employees available among whom the performance of that job function can be distributed.
(C) The function may be highly specialized, so that the incumbent in the position is hired based on expertise or the ability to perform a particular function.
(2) Evidence of whether a particular function is essential includes, but is not limited to, the following:
(A) The employer’s judgment as to which functions are essential.
(B) Written job descriptions prepared before advertising or interviewing applicants for the job.
(C) The amount of time spent on the job performing the function.
(D) The consequences of not requiring the incumbent to perform the function.
(E) The terms of a collective bargaining agreement.
(F) The work experiences of past incumbents in the job.
(G) The current work experience of incumbents in similar jobs.
(g) (1) “Genetic information” means, with respect to any individual, information about any of the following:
(A) The individual’s genetic tests.
(B) The genetic tests of family members of the individual.
(C) The manifestation of a disease or disorder in family members of the individual.
(2) “Genetic information” includes any request for, or receipt of, genetic services, or participation in clinical research that includes genetic services, by an individual or any family member of the individual.
(3) “Genetic information” does not include information about the sex or age of any individual.
(h) “Labor organization” includes any organization that exists and is constituted for the purpose, in whole or in part, of collective bargaining or of dealing with employers concerning grievances, terms or conditions of employment, or of other mutual aid or protection.
(i) “Medical condition” means either of the following:
(1) Any health impairment related to or associated with a diagnosis of cancer or a record or history of cancer.
(2) Genetic characteristics. For purposes of this section, “genetic characteristics” means either of the following:
(A) Any scientifically or medically identifiable gene or chromosome, or combination or alteration thereof, that is known to be a cause of a disease or disorder in a person or that person’s offspring, or that is determined to be associated with a statistically increased risk of development of a disease or disorder, and that is presently not associated with any symptoms of any disease or disorder.
(B) Inherited characteristics that may derive from the individual or family member, that are known to be a cause of a disease or disorder in a person or that person’s offspring, or that are determined to be associated with a statistically increased risk of development of a disease or disorder, and that are presently not associated with any symptoms of any disease or disorder.
(j) “Mental disability” includes, but is not limited to, all of the following:
(1) Having any mental or psychological disorder or condition, such as intellectual disability, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, or specific learning disabilities, that limits a major life activity. For purposes of this section:
(A) “Limits” shall be determined without regard to mitigating measures, such as medications, assistive devices, or reasonable accommodations, unless the mitigating measure itself limits a major life activity.
(B) A mental or psychological disorder or condition limits a major life activity if it makes the achievement of the major life activity difficult.
(C) “Major life activities” shall be broadly construed and shall include physical, mental, and social activities and working.
(2) Any other mental or psychological disorder or condition not described in paragraph (1) that requires special education or related services.
(3) Having a record or history of a mental or psychological disorder or condition described in paragraph (1) or (2), which is known to the employer or other entity covered by this part.
(4) Being regarded or treated by the employer or other entity covered by this part as having, or having had, any mental condition that makes achievement of a major life activity difficult.
(5) Being regarded or treated by the employer or other entity covered by this part as having, or having had, a mental or psychological disorder or condition that has no present disabling effect, but that may become a mental disability as described in paragraph (1) or (2).
“Mental disability” does not include sexual behavior disorders, compulsive gambling, kleptomania, pyromania, or psychoactive substance use disorders resulting from the current unlawful use of controlled substances or other drugs.
(k) “Military and veteran “Veteran or military status” means a member or veteran of the United States Armed Forces, United States Armed Forces Reserve, the United States National Guard, and the California National Guard.
(l) “On the bases enumerated in this part” means or refers to discrimination on the basis of one or more of the following: race, religious creed, color, national origin, ancestry, physical disability, mental disability, medical condition, genetic information, marital status, sex, age, sexual orientation, or military and veteran or military status.
(m) “Physical disability” includes, but is not limited to, all of the following:
(1) Having any physiological disease, disorder, condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss that does both of the following:
(A) Affects one or more of the following body systems: neurological, immunological, musculoskeletal, special sense organs, respiratory, including speech organs, cardiovascular, reproductive, digestive, genitourinary, hemic and lymphatic, skin, and endocrine.
(B) Limits a major life activity. For purposes of this section:
(i) “Limits” shall be determined without regard to mitigating measures such as medications, assistive devices, prosthetics, or reasonable accommodations, unless the mitigating measure itself limits a major life activity.
(ii) A physiological disease, disorder, condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss limits a major life activity if it makes the achievement of the major life activity difficult.
(iii) “Major life activities” shall be broadly construed and includes physical, mental, and social activities and working.
(2) Any other health impairment not described in paragraph (1) that requires special education or related services.
(3) Having a record or history of a disease, disorder, condition, cosmetic disfigurement, anatomical loss, or health impairment described in paragraph (1) or (2), which is known to the employer or other entity covered by this part.
(4) Being regarded or treated by the employer or other entity covered by this part as having, or having had, any physical condition that makes achievement of a major life activity difficult.
(5) Being regarded or treated by the employer or other entity covered by this part as having, or having had, a disease, disorder, condition, cosmetic disfigurement, anatomical loss, or health impairment that has no present disabling effect but may become a physical disability as described in paragraph (1) or (2).
(6) “Physical disability” does not include sexual behavior disorders, compulsive gambling, kleptomania, pyromania, or psychoactive substance use disorders resulting from the current unlawful use of controlled substances or other drugs.
(n) Notwithstanding subdivisions (j) and (m), if the definition of “disability” used in the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (Public Law 101-336) would result in broader protection of the civil rights of individuals with a mental disability or physical disability, as defined in subdivision (j) or (m), or would include any medical condition not included within those definitions, then that broader protection or coverage shall be deemed incorporated by reference into, and shall prevail over conflicting provisions of, the definitions in subdivisions (j) and (m).
(o) “Race, religious creed, color, national origin, ancestry, physical disability, mental disability, medical condition, genetic information, marital status, sex, age, sexual orientation, or military and veteran or military status” includes a perception that the person has any of those characteristics or that the person is associated with a person who has, or is perceived to have, any of those characteristics.
(p) “Reasonable accommodation” may include either of the following:
(1) Making existing facilities used by employees readily accessible to, and usable by, individuals with disabilities.
(2) Job restructuring, part-time or modified work schedules, reassignment to a vacant position, acquisition or modification of equipment or devices, adjustment or modifications of examinations, training materials or policies, the provision of qualified readers or interpreters, and other similar accommodations for individuals with disabilities.
(q) “Religious creed,” “religion,” “religious observance,” “religious belief,” and “creed” include all aspects of religious belief, observance, and practice, including religious dress and grooming practices. “Religious dress practice” shall be construed broadly to include the wearing or carrying of religious clothing, head or face coverings, jewelry, artifacts, and any other item that is part of an individual observing a religious creed. “Religious grooming practice” shall be construed broadly to include all forms of head, facial, and body hair that are part of an individual observing a religious creed.
(r) (1) “Sex” includes, but is not limited to, the following:
(A) Pregnancy or medical conditions related to pregnancy.
(B) Childbirth or medical conditions related to childbirth.
(C) Breastfeeding or medical conditions related to breastfeeding.
(2) “Sex” also includes, but is not limited to, a person’s gender. “Gender” means sex, and includes a person’s gender identity and gender expression. “Gender expression” means a person’s gender-related appearance and behavior whether or not stereotypically associated with the person’s assigned sex at birth.
(s) “Sexual orientation” means heterosexuality, homosexuality, and bisexuality.
(t) “Supervisor” means any individual having the authority, in the interest of the employer, to hire, transfer, suspend, lay off, recall, promote, discharge, assign, reward, or discipline other employees, or the responsibility to direct them, or to adjust their grievances, or effectively to recommend that action, if, in connection with the foregoing, the exercise of that authority is not of a merely routine or clerical nature, but requires the use of independent judgment.
(u) “Undue hardship” means an action requiring significant difficulty or expense, when considered in light of the following factors:
(1) The nature and cost of the accommodation needed.
(2) The overall financial resources of the facilities involved in the provision of the reasonable accommodations, the number of persons employed at the facility, and the effect on expenses and resources or the impact otherwise of these accommodations upon the operation of the facility.
(3) The overall financial resources of the covered entity, the overall size of the business of a covered entity with respect to the number of employees, and the number, type, and location of its facilities.
(4) The type of operations, including the composition, structure, and functions of the workforce of the entity.
(5) The geographic separateness or administrative or fiscal relationship of the facility or facilities.
(v) “National origin” discrimination includes, but is not limited to, discrimination on the basis of possessing a driver’s license granted under Section 12801.9 of the Vehicle Code.
(w) “Race” is inclusive of traits historically associated with race, including, but not limited to, hair texture and protective hairstyles.
(x) “Protective hairstyles” includes, but is not limited to, such hairstyles as braids, locks, and twists.

SEC. 11.

 Section 12940 of the Government Code is amended to read:

12940.
 It is an unlawful employment practice, unless based upon a bona fide occupational qualification, or, except where based upon applicable security regulations established by the United States or the State of California:
(a) For an employer, because of the race, religious creed, color, national origin, ancestry, physical disability, mental disability, medical condition, genetic information, marital status, sex, gender, gender identity, gender expression, age, sexual orientation, or military and veteran or military status of any person, to refuse to hire or employ the person or to refuse to select the person for a training program leading to employment, or to bar or to discharge the person from employment or from a training program leading to employment, or to discriminate against the person in compensation or in terms, conditions, or privileges of employment.
(1) This part does not prohibit an employer from refusing to hire or discharging an employee with a physical or mental disability, or subject an employer to any legal liability resulting from the refusal to employ or the discharge of an employee with a physical or mental disability, if the employee, because of a physical or mental disability, is unable to perform the employee’s essential duties even with reasonable accommodations, or cannot perform those duties in a manner that would not endanger the employee’s health or safety or the health or safety of others even with reasonable accommodations.
(2) This part does not prohibit an employer from refusing to hire or discharging an employee who, because of the employee’s medical condition, is unable to perform the employee’s essential duties even with reasonable accommodations, or cannot perform those duties in a manner that would not endanger the employee’s health or safety or the health or safety of others even with reasonable accommodations. Nothing in this part shall subject an employer to any legal liability resulting from the refusal to employ or the discharge of an employee who, because of the employee’s medical condition, is unable to perform the employee’s essential duties, or cannot perform those duties in a manner that would not endanger the employee’s health or safety or the health or safety of others even with reasonable accommodations.
(3) Nothing in this part relating to discrimination on account of marital status shall do either of the following:
(A) Affect the right of an employer to reasonably regulate, for reasons of supervision, safety, security, or morale, the working of spouses in the same department, division, or facility, consistent with the rules and regulations adopted by the commission.
(B) Prohibit bona fide health plans from providing additional or greater benefits to employees with dependents than to those employees without or with fewer dependents.
(4) Nothing in this part relating to discrimination on account of sex shall affect the right of an employer to use veteran status as a factor in employee selection or to give special consideration to Vietnam-era veterans.
(5) (A) This part does not prohibit an employer from refusing to employ an individual because of the individual’s age if the law compels or provides for that refusal. Promotions within the existing staff, hiring or promotion on the basis of experience and training, rehiring on the basis of seniority and prior service with the employer, or hiring under an established recruiting program from high schools, colleges, universities, or trade schools do not, in and of themselves, constitute unlawful employment practices.
(B) The provisions of this part relating to discrimination on the basis of age do not prohibit an employer from providing health benefits or health care reimbursement plans to retired persons that are altered, reduced, or eliminated when the person becomes eligible for Medicare health benefits. This subparagraph applies to all retiree health benefit plans and contractual provisions or practices concerning retiree health benefits and health care reimbursement plans in effect on or after January 1, 2011.
(b) For a labor organization, because of the race, religious creed, color, national origin, ancestry, physical disability, mental disability, medical condition, genetic information, marital status, sex, gender, gender identity, gender expression, age, sexual orientation, or military and veteran or military status of any person, to exclude, expel, or restrict from its membership the person, or to provide only second-class or segregated membership or to discriminate against any person because of the race, religious creed, color, national origin, ancestry, physical disability, mental disability, medical condition, genetic information, marital status, sex, gender, gender identity, gender expression, age, sexual orientation, or military and veteran or military status of the person in the election of officers of the labor organization or in the selection of the labor organization’s staff or to discriminate in any way against any of its members or against any employer or against any person employed by an employer.
(c) For any person to discriminate against any person in the selection, termination, training, or other terms or treatment of that person in any apprenticeship training program, any other training program leading to employment, an unpaid internship, or another limited duration program to provide unpaid work experience for that person because of the race, religious creed, color, national origin, ancestry, physical disability, mental disability, medical condition, genetic information, marital status, sex, gender, gender identity, gender expression, age, sexual orientation, or military and veteran or military status of the person discriminated against.
(d) For any employer or employment agency to print or circulate or cause to be printed or circulated any publication, or to make any nonjob-related inquiry of an employee or applicant, either verbal or through use of an application form, that expresses, directly or indirectly, any limitation, specification, or discrimination as to race, religious creed, color, national origin, ancestry, physical disability, mental disability, medical condition, genetic information, marital status, sex, gender, gender identity, gender expression, age, sexual orientation, or military and veteran or military status, or any intent to make any such limitation, specification, or discrimination. This part does not prohibit an employer or employment agency from inquiring into the age of an applicant, or from specifying age limitations, if the law compels or provides for that action.
(e) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2) or (3), for any employer or employment agency to require any medical or psychological examination of an applicant, to make any medical or psychological inquiry of an applicant, to make any inquiry whether an applicant has a mental disability or physical disability or medical condition, or to make any inquiry regarding the nature or severity of a physical disability, mental disability, or medical condition.
(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), an employer or employment agency may inquire into the ability of an applicant to perform job-related functions and may respond to an applicant’s request for reasonable accommodation.
(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), an employer or employment agency may require a medical or psychological examination or make a medical or psychological inquiry of a job applicant after an employment offer has been made but prior to the commencement of employment duties, provided that the examination or inquiry is job related and consistent with business necessity and that all entering employees in the same job classification are subject to the same examination or inquiry.
(f) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), for any employer or employment agency to require any medical or psychological examination of an employee, to make any medical or psychological inquiry of an employee, to make any inquiry whether an employee has a mental disability, physical disability, or medical condition, or to make any inquiry regarding the nature or severity of a physical disability, mental disability, or medical condition.
(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), an employer or employment agency may require any examinations or inquiries that it can show to be job related and consistent with business necessity. An employer or employment agency may conduct voluntary medical examinations, including voluntary medical histories, which are part of an employee health program available to employees at that worksite.
(g) For any employer, labor organization, or employment agency to harass, discharge, expel, or otherwise discriminate against any person because the person has made a report pursuant to Section 11161.8 of the Penal Code that prohibits retaliation against hospital employees who report suspected patient abuse by health facilities or community care facilities.
(h) For any employer, labor organization, employment agency, or person to discharge, expel, or otherwise discriminate against any person because the person has opposed any practices forbidden under this part or because the person has filed a complaint, testified, or assisted in any proceeding under this part.
(i) For any person to aid, abet, incite, compel, or coerce the doing of any of the acts forbidden under this part, or to attempt to do so.
(j) (1) For an employer, labor organization, employment agency, apprenticeship training program or any training program leading to employment, or any other person, because of race, religious creed, color, national origin, ancestry, physical disability, mental disability, medical condition, genetic information, marital status, sex, gender, gender identity, gender expression, age, sexual orientation, or military and veteran or military status, to harass an employee, an applicant, an unpaid intern or volunteer, or a person providing services pursuant to a contract. Harassment of an employee, an applicant, an unpaid intern or volunteer, or a person providing services pursuant to a contract by an employee, other than an agent or supervisor, shall be unlawful if the entity, or its agents or supervisors, knows or should have known of this conduct and fails to take immediate and appropriate corrective action. An employer may also be responsible for the acts of nonemployees, with respect to harassment of employees, applicants, unpaid interns or volunteers, or persons providing services pursuant to a contract in the workplace, if the employer, or its agents or supervisors, knows or should have known of the conduct and fails to take immediate and appropriate corrective action. In reviewing cases involving the acts of nonemployees, the extent of the employer’s control and any other legal responsibility that the employer may have with respect to the conduct of those nonemployees shall be considered. An entity shall take all reasonable steps to prevent harassment from occurring. Loss of tangible job benefits shall not be necessary in order to establish harassment.
(2) The provisions of this subdivision are declaratory of existing law, except for the new duties imposed on employers with regard to harassment.
(3) An employee of an entity subject to this subdivision is personally liable for any harassment prohibited by this section that is perpetrated by the employee, regardless of whether the employer or covered entity knows or should have known of the conduct and fails to take immediate and appropriate corrective action.
(4) (A) For purposes of this subdivision only, “employer” means any person regularly employing one or more persons or regularly receiving the services of one or more persons providing services pursuant to a contract, or any person acting as an agent of an employer, directly or indirectly, the state, or any political or civil subdivision of the state, and cities. The definition of “employer” in subdivision (d) of Section 12926 applies to all provisions of this section other than this subdivision.
(B) Notwithstanding subparagraph (A), for purposes of this subdivision, “employer” does not include a religious association or corporation not organized for private profit, except as provided in Section 12926.2.
(C) For purposes of this subdivision, “harassment” because of sex includes sexual harassment, gender harassment, and harassment based on pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions. Sexually harassing conduct need not be motivated by sexual desire.
(5) For purposes of this subdivision, “a person providing services pursuant to a contract” means a person who meets all of the following criteria:
(A) The person has the right to control the performance of the contract for services and discretion as to the manner of performance.
(B) The person is customarily engaged in an independently established business.
(C) The person has control over the time and place the work is performed, supplies the tools and instruments used in the work, and performs work that requires a particular skill not ordinarily used in the course of the employer’s work.
(k) For an employer, labor organization, employment agency, apprenticeship training program, or any training program leading to employment, to fail to take all reasonable steps necessary to prevent discrimination and harassment from occurring.
(l) (1) For an employer or other entity covered by this part to refuse to hire or employ a person or to refuse to select a person for a training program leading to employment or to bar or to discharge a person from employment or from a training program leading to employment, or to discriminate against a person in compensation or in terms, conditions, or privileges of employment because of a conflict between the person’s religious belief or observance and any employment requirement, unless the employer or other entity covered by this part demonstrates that it has explored any available reasonable alternative means of accommodating the religious belief or observance, including the possibilities of excusing the person from those duties that conflict with the person’s religious belief or observance or permitting those duties to be performed at another time or by another person, but is unable to reasonably accommodate the religious belief or observance without undue hardship, as defined in subdivision (u) of Section 12926, on the conduct of the business of the employer or other entity covered by this part. Religious belief or observance, as used in this section, includes, but is not limited to, observance of a Sabbath or other religious holy day or days, reasonable time necessary for travel prior and subsequent to a religious observance, and religious dress practice and religious grooming practice as described in subdivision (q) of Section 12926. This subdivision shall also apply to an apprenticeship training program, an unpaid internship, and any other program to provide unpaid experience for a person in the workplace or industry.
(2) An accommodation of an individual’s religious dress practice or religious grooming practice is not reasonable if the accommodation requires segregation of the individual from other employees or the public.
(3) An accommodation is not required under this subdivision if it would result in a violation of this part or any other law prohibiting discrimination or protecting civil rights, including subdivision (b) of Section 51 of the Civil Code and Section 11135 of this code.
(4) For an employer or other entity covered by this part to, in addition to the employee protections provided pursuant to subdivision (h), retaliate or otherwise discriminate against a person for requesting accommodation under this subdivision, regardless of whether the request was granted.
(m) (1) For an employer or other entity covered by this part to fail to make reasonable accommodation for the known physical or mental disability of an applicant or employee. Nothing in this subdivision or in paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision (a) shall be construed to require an accommodation that is demonstrated by the employer or other covered entity to produce undue hardship, as defined in subdivision (u) of Section 12926, to its operation.
(2) For an employer or other entity covered by this part to, in addition to the employee protections provided pursuant to subdivision (h), retaliate or otherwise discriminate against a person for requesting accommodation under this subdivision, regardless of whether the request was granted.
(n) For an employer or other entity covered by this part to fail to engage in a timely, good faith, interactive process with the employee or applicant to determine effective reasonable accommodations, if any, in response to a request for reasonable accommodation by an employee or applicant with a known physical or mental disability or known medical condition.
(o) For an employer or other entity covered by this part, to subject, directly or indirectly, any employee, applicant, or other person to a test for the presence of a genetic characteristic.
(p) Nothing in this section shall be interpreted as preventing the ability of employers to identify members of the military or veterans for purposes of awarding a veteran’s preference as permitted by law.

SEC. 7.SEC. 12.

 Section 14985.8 of the Government Code is amended to read:

14985.8.
 The commission shall compile the following data with respect to any demand letter or complaint sent to the commission pursuant to Section 55.32 of the Civil Code and post the information on its internet website pursuant to the following:
(a) The commission shall identify the various types of construction-related physical access violations alleged in the demand letters and in the complaints, respectively, and shall tabulate the number of claims alleged for each type of violation in the demand letters and complaints, respectively. For purposes of this subdivision, any demand for money letters shall be grouped as demand letters.
(b) Periodically, but not less than every six months beginning July 31, 2013, the commission shall post on its internet website a list, by type, of the 10 most frequent types of accessibility violations alleged in the demand letters and in the complaints, respectively, and the numbers of alleged violations for each listed type of violation for the prior two quarters.
(c) The commission shall, on a quarterly basis, identify and tabulate the number of demand letters and complaints received by the commission. The commission shall further ascertain whether a complaint was filed in state or federal court and tabulate the number of complaints filed in state or federal court, respectively. This data shall be posted on the commission’s internet website periodically, but not less than every six months beginning July 31, 2013.
(d) Commencing in 2014, and notwithstanding Section 10231.5, the commission shall make an annual report to the Legislature and the Chairs of the Senate and Assembly Committees on Judiciary by January 31 of each year of the tabulated data for the preceding calendar year as set forth in subdivisions (a) to (c), inclusive. A report to be submitted pursuant to this subdivision shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795.
(e) At least 30 days before requiring a new standard format for the information to be sent to the commission pursuant to Section 55.32 of the Civil Code, the commission shall post on its internet website the new standard format and the date on which the commission shall begin requiring that information to be sent to the commission in the new standard format.

SEC. 13.

 Section 15642 of the Probate Code is amended to read:

15642.
 (a) A trustee may be removed in accordance with the trust instrument, by the court on its own motion, or on petition of a settlor, cotrustee, or beneficiary under Section 17200.
(b) The grounds for removal of a trustee by the court include the following:
(1) Where the trustee has committed a breach of the trust.
(2) Where the trustee is insolvent or otherwise unfit to administer the trust.
(3) Where hostility or lack of cooperation among cotrustees impairs the administration of the trust.
(4) Where the trustee fails or declines to act.
(5) Where the trustee’s compensation is excessive under the circumstances.
(6) Where the sole trustee is a person described in subdivision (a) of Section 21350 or subdivision (a) of Section 21380, whether or not the person is the transferee of a donative transfer by the transferor, unless, based upon any evidence of the intent of the settlor and all other facts and circumstances, which shall be made known to the court, the court finds that it is consistent with the settlor’s intent that the trustee continue to serve and that this intent was not the product of fraud or undue influence. Any waiver by the settlor of this provision is against public policy and shall be void. This paragraph shall not apply to instruments that became irrevocable on or before January 1, 1994. This paragraph shall not apply if any of the following conditions are met:
(A) The settlor is related by blood or marriage to, or is a cohabitant with, any one or more of the trustees, the person who drafted or transcribed the instrument, or the person who caused the instrument to be transcribed.
(B) The instrument is reviewed by an independent attorney who (1) counsels the settlor about the nature of his or her their intended trustee designation and (2) signs and delivers to the settlor and the designated trustee a certificate in substantially the following form:
“CERTIFICATE OF INDEPENDENT REVIEW
I,  _____ (attorney’s name) _____ , have reviewed
_____ (name of instrument) _____ and have counseled my client,
_____ (name of client) _____ , fully and privately on the nature and
legal effect of the designation as trustee of  _____ (name of trustee) _____
contained in that instrument. I am so disassociated from the interest of the person named as trustee as to be in a position to advise my client impartially and confidentially as to the consequences of the designation. On the basis of this counsel, I conclude that the designation of a person who would otherwise be subject to removal under paragraph (6) of subdivision (b) of Section 15642 of the Probate Code is clearly the settlor’s intent and thatintent is not the product of fraud, menace, duress, or undue influence.
_____ (Name of Attorney) _____  (Date) ”
This independent review and certification may occur either before or after the instrument has been executed, and if it occurs after the date of execution, the named trustee shall not be subject to removal under this paragraph. Any attorney whose written engagement signed by the client is expressly limited to the preparation of a certificate under this subdivision, including the prior counseling, shall not be considered to otherwise represent the client.
(C) After full disclosure of the relationships of the persons involved, the instrument is approved pursuant to an order under Article 10 (commencing with Section 2580) of Chapter 6 of Part 4 of Division 4.
(7) If, as determined under Part 17 (commencing with Section 810) of Division 2, the trustee is substantially unable to manage the trust’s financial resources or is otherwise substantially unable to execute properly the duties of the office. When the trustee holds the power to revoke the trust, substantial inability to manage the trust’s financial resources or otherwise execute properly the duties of the office may not be proved solely by isolated incidents of negligence or improvidence.
(8) If the trustee is substantially unable to resist fraud or undue influence. When the trustee holds the power to revoke the trust, substantial inability to resist fraud or undue influence may not be proved solely by isolated incidents of negligence or improvidence.
(9) For other good cause.
(c) If, pursuant to paragraph (6) of subdivision (b), the court finds that the designation of the trustee was not consistent with the intent of the settlor or was the product of fraud or undue influence, the person being removed as trustee shall bear all costs of the proceeding, including reasonable attorney’s fees.
(d) If the court finds that the petition for removal of the trustee was filed in bad faith and that removal would be contrary to the settlor’s intent, the court may order that the person or persons seeking the removal of the trustee bear all or any part of the costs of the proceeding, including reasonable attorney’s fees.
(e) If it appears to the court that trust property or the interests of a beneficiary may suffer loss or injury pending a decision on a petition for removal of a trustee and any appellate review, the court may, on its own motion or on petition of a cotrustee or beneficiary, compel the trustee whose removal is sought to surrender trust property to a cotrustee or to a receiver or temporary trustee. The court may also suspend the powers of the trustee to the extent the court deems necessary.
(f) For purposes of this section, the term “related by blood or marriage” shall include persons within the seventh degree.

SEC. 14.

 Section 19209 of the Public Contract Code is amended to read:

19209.
 (a) Notwithstanding Section 10231.5 of the Government Code, beginning in 2012, twice each year, the Judicial Council shall annually provide a report to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee and the State Auditor that provides information related to procurement of contracts for the judicial branch. One report shall be provided no later than February 1 of each year, covering the period from July 1 through December 31 of the prior year, and the second report shall be provided no later than August 1 of each year, covering the period from January 1 through June 30 of the same year. contracts and payments for the trial courts pursuant to subdivisions (b) and (c). The report shall be provided no later than September 30 of each year, covering the state fiscal year ending June 30 of that year. Additionally, judicial branch entities using the Financial Information System for California (FISCal) shall participate with the state’s transparency effort by making their contract and payment information available for the state’s transparency websites on a rolling basis. For these entities, the judicial branch shall ensure their contract and payment information is entered in FISCal for the state transparency websites and for state department audit purposes.
(b) Each of the two annual reports shall include For the trial courts, payment data shall include a list of all vendors or contractors receiving payments from any judicial branch entities. For each vendor or contractor receiving any payment during the reporting period, the report shall provide a separate listing for each distinct contract between that vendor or contractor and a judicial branch entity. For every vendor or contractor listed in the report, including for each distinct contract for those contractors or vendors with more than one payment during the period, the report shall further during the reporting period. For each vendor or contractor receiving any payment during the reporting period, the report shall identify the amount of payment to the contractor or vendor, the type of service or good provided, and the judicial branch entity or entities with which the vendor or contractor was contracted to provide that service or good.
(c) Each of the two annual reports shall include a list of all For the trial courts, the report shall include all contracts and contract amendments made during the report period. For each amendment, the The report shall identify the vendor or contractor, the type of service or good provided under the contract, and, if applicable, the nature of the amendment, the duration of the amendment, and the cost of the amendment.

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